Hi Dayage. Thx for taking the time to post.
What science is saying is that there was a begining to a non-zero entrophy state. What scientist on the other hand are saying is that they have a hypothetical/ conceptual explanation of how that state occurred.
I would say that the context of these papers you have linked must initially be understood. The makers of the papers are assuming no God/ inteligent designer with the ability to choose brought about the conditions we currently observe. So, they are trying to rationalize a beginning that just happened. Poof!. Their argument has no valid method of proving and would intrinsically remain a hypothesis forever.
dayage wrote:
In this letter, we advance the idea that a low entropy initial state, indeed one with zero entropy, is not only natural but compulsory. We address the origin of the Universe in the context of a new approach to quantum gravity rooted in a quantum equivalence principle that renders the state space of a generalized quantum mechanics fully dynamical...
http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/arxiv/pdf/080 ... 3598v1.pdf
The above paper although positing the same initial state of space as I do which would be the zero entrophy state goes on to address how such a state can change on its own by a natural means. A form of something from nothing hypothesis by way of saying there was always something and in some way its initial zero entrophy state changed naturally. Poof! it just happened.
dayage wrote: The idea comes straight from the Bible.
Genesis 1:1 "In the beginning" (time) "God created the heavens and the earth" (a merism meaning the entire universe).
Before Time Began or before the ages of time (pro before, chronos time, aionios, ages) Titus 1:2-3; 2 Timothy 1:9-10 Before All Time or Every Age (pro pas aion)Jude 25
Actually a beginning of time and the universe is found only within 'interpretational license'. One can certainly posit that 'in the beginning' means a start of time itself as has happened by many upon reading the references you give here but, is such a position tenable? We must consider further evidence before settling on such an assumption. Consider this;
Isa 57:15 For thus saith the high and lofty One that inhabiteth eternity,
Deu 33:27 The eternal God is thy refuge
Psa 90:2 Before the mountains were brought forth, or ever thou hadst formed the earth and the world, even from everlasting to everlasting, thou art God.
What does eternity, eternal and everlasting mean?
eternity - infinite time; duration without beginning or end.
eternal - without beginning or end; lasting forever; always existing
everlasting - lasting forever; eternal: everlasting future life.
'Infinite time'... You see there cannot be a beginning of time and a state of eternity at the same time. Either God is 'eternal' or time had a beginning and God had a beginning. Thus, when properly interpreted 'in the beginning can only apply to that point in infinite time when something came to exist. God made a choice at some point in infinite time to create something.
God never commanded - "let there be time" He did not create time. What he did create was a reference to track time so that it could be measured. he defined the method of measuring time in;
Gen 1:5 And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day.
dayage wrote: 1 Peter 1:20 Peter uses both kosmos (universe) with chronos (time) in a way that suggests their common origin.
Let us review this;
1Peter 1:20 Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world...
It would rather plainly state that an action happened prior to the foundation of the world. Nothing here intimates a beginning of either time or space. God has rather plainly also described how he founded the world in Gen 1:6-10. If he felt that it was worth describing how he 'formed' the design of the earth and universe then why don't we see a description of how time itself was formed? why no references other than a description of how to measure it?
dayage wrote:Philo of Alexandria (~20 B.C.-50A.D.)
"Moses says also; "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth:" taking the beginning to be, not as some men think, that which is according to time; for before the world time had no existence, but was created either simultaneously with it, or after it; for since time is the interval of the motion of the heavens, there could not have been any such thing as motion before there was anything which could be moved; but it follows of necessity that it received existence subsequently or simultaneously. It therefore follows also of necessity, that time was created either at the same moment with the world, or later than it--and to venture to assert that it is older than the world is absolutely inconsistent with philosophy." On The Creation, VII, 26
Philo is a philosopher Dayage. Philosophers are also the ones who have concluded that materialism minus an intelligent designer is a logical path of inquiry to explain everything. He has done nothing more than made an interpretation with his own interpretive license in order to posit what he considers reality. Would you stake your life on the assertion of a philosopher? Note that even he understood that "measured time" is based on the motions of heavenly bodies. Where he failed was the assumption that time ceases to exist prior to the heavenly bodies existence. If I were to place you in a dark room for the rest of your life with no reference to time would it be logical to assume time had ended? The fact that the watch components (heavenly bodies) were designed and implemented cannot logically infer that before them there was no time.
dayage wrote: Justin Martyr (100-165 A.D.) "And from what source did Plato draw the information that time was created along with the heavens? For he wrote thus: Time, accordingly, was created along with the heavens; in order that, coming into being together, they might also be together dissolved, if ever their dissolution should take place. Had he not learned this from the divine history of Moses?"Hortatory Address to the Greeks, ch. 33
Indeed, did Plato learn his understanding from the history of moses? or did he use interpretational license on the history of moses? Plato is not God, his words are questionable and those who reinterpret other peoples interpretations are even more questionable.
KBCid wrote:The first act of creation the 'living God' did was to create the 'living word'. My understanding is derived from the words of the Son as it has been given in the biblical text. If this is incorrect then by all means show me a translation that makes more logical sense.
dayage wrote:Then why have you only supplied us with English dictionary definitions of English words?
There are many interpretations and definitions. Begining with english seems like a good starting point.
KBCid wrote:The 'living word' chose of his own free will to sacrifice himself to save what he believed was worth saving. Remember carefully Gen 2:17 "...for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die". The 'living word' of God chose not to fulfill the very word he delivered to Adam and Eve. Had he done so 'man' would have ended right there and then.
dayage wrote:No, Genesis 2:17 was fulfilled. This is the Hebrew (transliteration) of Genesis 2:17:
Beyom (in the day) acholcha (you eat) mimenu (from it) mot (die) tamut (you die)
Yes. You and I can certainly rationalize in hindsight that 'in the day' meant an undefined period of time.
dayage wrote: The back-to-back uses of mut (die) emphasize the certainty of the result. That is why most translations translate the two words as "surely die." The more I have looked at the sentence, the more I believe it was referring to when the outcome would become certain, not when the outcome would take place. "In the day you eat from it your dying shall be certain." In Genesis 3:4 the Serpent does not argue about the timing, he just denies the result. Also, God brings up the fact that Adam would not die immediately (Genesis 3:17), but that his dying was certain (Genesis 3:19). The day Adam ate the fruit, God made his future death certain, by removing him from the Tree of Life (Genesis 3:22-24).
dayage wrote:This is very similar to what we see in 1 Kings 2:37, 42:
Beyom (in the day) [you leave Jerusalem] yadoa (know) teda (you know) ki (that) mot (die)
tamut (you die). "In the day [you leave Jerusalem] you will know for sure that your dying is certain." Shimei's journey took at least 2 days and probably more like 3 or 4. Gath was at least 30 miles away and a day's journey was about 20-30 miles, plus he had to find his servants. Thus, the meaning was not that he would die on that very day. In both cases the meaning was something like "once you do this, you can be sure that you will die." The phrase referred to when (the time that) the result would be made certain, not to the timing of the actual result (i.e. when death would take place).
I agree this has a great similarity and it sure seems that 'in the day' can mean a period of time rather than an absolute night & day and if we compare those verses to Gen 2:4 "These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens..." then we could definitely continue with that rationale.
The one thing that should bother both of us here is that once Shimei was caught by Solomon he actually died, when Adam and Eve got caught they didn't. Do you suppose Adam and Eve understood that when God said "in the day" he meant an unspecified period of time and not the actual day they disobeyed? Or might we supposed God meant when I catch you, you will certainly die.
Out of curiosity here, If you knew as much about God as Adam and Eve did and God had said the same command to you what would you assume 'in the day' meant? What do you think would happen when confronted by your maker for disobeying him?
KBCid wrote:If you think about it Satan intentionally tried to get God to admit to a less than perfect creation... by getting man killed. Man who was in Gods own words "made in our image". Satan was testing God. The 'living word' saw what satan was doing and chose to sacrifice his own life to keep him from proving that his father had failed in creating another being that was most like himself (in his image).
dayage wrote:How do you come to this conclusion? Even after the Fall, we still bear God's image/likeness (Gen. 1:26-27; 5:1; 9:6; James 3:8). Jesus also alludes to this in Matt. 20:20-21; Mark 12:16-17; Luke 20:24-25. The coin bore Caesar's image, therefore the people were to give it to Caesar. We bear God's image, therefore we are to give ourselves to God.
That was part of my point Dayage, we are made in the image of God. How would it look if God had simply killed Adam and Eve for disobeying him? couldn't he have simply reformed another set of man made in his image? Wouldn't Adam and Eve have assumed that God could simply replace them with a new pair? It would have looked bad if God would have simply killed the first creation that was made in the image of Father and Son.