inspired or dictated?

Discussions about the Bible, and any issues raised by Scripture.
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Re: inspired or dictated?

Post by PaulSacramento »

1stjohn0666 wrote:Do you think that the writers of the bible were capable of making errors and thus being in contradiction with each other? Do you think that God spoke to each person (however you see God) and thus they were "robots" that wrote word for word what God spoke?
My answer is yes to the first and no to the second.
It depends on how one interprets and understand "divine inspiration".
To some it means that the HS "takes over" and the writer is writing "as God".
To others it means that the HS inspires the writer to write about God and what is going on.
I believe it is a combination of both depending on what is being written and why.
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Re: inspired or dictated?

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1stjohn0666 wrote:There are many "Lords" in the bible, many "kings" also. Artexerxes was called "king of kings" Ezra 7:12 As for Lord in the divine sense I see 2 Lords, Lord God the Father and Lord Messiah Jesus. I see one God the Father and one Messiah Jesus. The Father is not the messiah as some believe, who I disagree with.
Ah, thank you for this full response. It is interesting that Artexerxes was called "king of kings," isn't it? Although, I'm sure we could agree that it's not in the same Divine sense as when it refers to G-d (Psalm 136:3) or the Messiah (1 Timothy 6:15, Revelation 17:4). In Hebrew, that kind of expression (Lord of lords, King of kings, Song of Songs, et cetera) is simply a way of communicating something's superiority, and although the New Testament was written in Greek, it was written by Jewish men in a Hebraic mindset, and phrases and sentence construction that parallel the Hebrew language are often found in the Gospels and the epistles.

Btw, a question, how are both G-d and the Messiah Lord of lords? They can't both be supreme to each other.

To your next point, you say you believe in two Lords. Interesting, let's look at this. I think once we look at a few Scriptures you may have to rethink this view. Recall the Sh'ma, a famous and central prayer in Judaism that recites portions from Deuteronomy, firstly and most importantly Deuteronomy 6:4. Jesus quotes it when asked what the most important commandment is, so He affirms it as well.
He says at Mark 12:29,
"Hear, O Isra'el! The Lord our G-d is One Lord."

So Jesus says that there is one Lord, Who is G-d. Recall also His words recorded at John 10:30, "I and the Father are One" (not in the sense of being the same Person, but of being of the same nature and united in a way so closely that they are of one essence).

Next the apostle Paul writes in Ephesians 4:5-6 that there is "One Lord, one faith, one baptism, One G-d and Father of all who is over all [Father] and through all [Word] and in all [Holy Spirit]" (brackets my additions). These mirror his words at 1 Corinthians 8:6, where he states, "..yet for us there is but One G-d, the Father, from Whom are all things and we exist for Him; and One Lord, Jesus the Messiah, by Whom are all thing, and we exist through Him." Again he affirms there being only One G-d and One Lord. Yet, both the Father and Jesus are called G-d (Jesus is called G-d in these passages, for a few examples: Isaiah 9:6, John 1:1, 14, 20:28) and Lord (both are called Lord so often specific verses aren't necessary).

It seems that there can be no denying that, according to the Scriptures and the apostles, there's only One G-d and One Lord. And yet, the Messiah and G-d both hold these titles.

To make matters worse, the Spirit of G-d, the Holy Spirit, is called the Lord too! Paul does so at 2 Corinthians 3:17, saying, "Now the Lord is the Spirit.."

So it seems you must disagree with Scripture to affirm that there are two or more Lords, and to say that the Messiah isn't the same Lord as the Father, Who are both the same Lord as the Spirit.

I do agree with you, though, that those who say that the Father is the Messiah are in error. As Byblos pointed out, that's a central belief in the Trinitarian framework.
"The prophet is a man who feels fiercely. G-d has thrust a burden upon his soul, and he is bowed and stunned at man's fierce greed. Frightful is the agony of man; no human voice can convey its full terror. Prophecy is the voice that G-d has lent to the silent agony, a voice to the plundered poor, to the profaned riches of the world. It is a form of living, a crossing point of G-d and man."
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Re: inspired or dictated?

Post by 1stjohn0666 »

The title "Lord" we have kings being addressed as "my Lord" a title of authority. Jesus is Lord Messiah not Lord God. As for the text Deut 6:4 it is "Hear O Israel the Yaweh our Adonai is one Yaweh. The words we read in English for Yaweh is LORD, all caps to denote (the Father) who is one God.
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Re: inspired or dictated?

Post by PaulSacramento »

One will find that the terms "Lord", "God", "saviour" and such, are used of Father, Son and HS.
So, one can argue that, either all three are those things ( shared in perfect union) or the writers believed that all three with different Gods, Lords and Saviours...
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Re: inspired or dictated?

Post by cheezerrox »

1stjohn0666 wrote:The title "Lord" we have kings being addressed as "my Lord" a title of authority. Jesus is Lord Messiah not Lord God. As for the text Deut 6:4 it is "Hear O Israel the Yaweh our Adonai is one Yaweh. The words we read in English for Yaweh is LORD, all caps to denote (the Father) who is one God.
That's true, "adoni," literally, "my lord," is used as a title of authority for both humans and G-d. But, as I've shown from the Scriptures in my above post, Jesus is referred to both as THE Lord, and as G-d. What explanation do you have for that?
And yes, that is why I didn't quote from the passage in Deuteronomy, as the substution "Adonai," literally "my Lords" (it is plural, unlike the former adoni, just as Elohim literally means "gods" and yet is used singularly for the One True G-d) is used because of Jewish tradition, and isn't in the original manuscript, as attempting to pronounce the Tetragammaton is forbidden. Yet, when the Messiah quoted that passage, He felt using "Lord" was still accurate, and repeated it as such. So, although Deuteronomy 6:4 may not say (explicitly, at least) that there is One Lord, Jesus does. So, the contradiction of there being two Lords remains.
1stjohn, I can tell you want to be as accurate as possible, without regard to tradition or orthodoxy, and I sincerely respect that, as I hold a few views that don't fall in line with much of mainstream Christianity. But, you're ignoring a lot of the points and Scriptures that I'm presenting you with, and that worries me. Please read my previous post closely, study the Scriptures, and most importantly, pray to our Father that He leads you into the truth. Only He can, not me or you or anyone else. I trust that if you're seeking for the truth, you'll find it (John 16:13).

EDIT: Paul makes a really good point in his above post, and I can't say I know how to reconcile that with your view.
"The prophet is a man who feels fiercely. G-d has thrust a burden upon his soul, and he is bowed and stunned at man's fierce greed. Frightful is the agony of man; no human voice can convey its full terror. Prophecy is the voice that G-d has lent to the silent agony, a voice to the plundered poor, to the profaned riches of the world. It is a form of living, a crossing point of G-d and man."
- Abraham Joshua Heschel
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Re: inspired or dictated?

Post by PaulSacramento »

One of the biggest statements of Jesus' divinity and "godness" is that. for a Jew, Only God could forgive the sins of others and salvation was ONLY available through God and in His name.
BUT what do we see in the NT?
Jesus forgiving and with full authority to forgive.
And perhaps more importantly, Jesus being saviour and HIS name being the one that grants salvation.
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Re: inspired or dictated?

Post by 1stjohn0666 »

Lord is simply a title of authority, minor or major. Your scriptures you gave are not "proof texts" that Jesus is God. Moses was called Elohim, are we to think Moses is God to?
Deut 6:4 Hear O Israel the Yaweh our "Elohim" is one Yaweh. Adoni is NOT Adonai Psalm 110:1 "The LORD (Adonai) says to my Lord (Adoni) ... Adonai is the Father, Adoni is the Messiah.
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Re: inspired or dictated?

Post by RickD »

1stjohn, have you read the book of John, in the bible? I suggest you open your bible to the book of John, and ask God to open your eyes to see what He is about to show you, regarding the deity of Jesus Christ. Then read the book of John, and let us know what you see.
John 5:24
24 “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.


“A nation of sheep will beget a government of wolves.”
-Edward R Murrow




St. Richard the Sarcastic--The Patron Saint of Irony
PaulSacramento
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Re: inspired or dictated?

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1stjohn0666 wrote:Lord is simply a title of authority, minor or major. Your scriptures you gave are not "proof texts" that Jesus is God. Moses was called Elohim, are we to think Moses is God to?
Deut 6:4 Hear O Israel the Yaweh our "Elohim" is one Yaweh. Adoni is NOT Adonai Psalm 110:1 "The LORD (Adonai) says to my Lord (Adoni) ... Adonai is the Father, Adoni is the Messiah.
You are kind of using selective interpretation in your views.
Let me ask you this, when Gos said, Let US MAKE Man in OUR image", to whom was he speaking?
Not the angels since they did NOT have ANY role in MAKING Man.
It must have been to another that was PART of the creative process and since only GOD can create ( there is only ONE creator God) then, who is "US"?
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Re: inspired or dictated?

Post by 1stjohn0666 »

When God is spoken to the bible ALWAYS uses singular personal pronouns. When God speaks he ALMOST ALWAYS speaks having singular personal pronouns except the 4 "us" texts that God included others in an action. Only assumptions can be made from scripture as to who or what the "us" is. I believe the us is other divine beings. With Gen 1:26 it does say "let us" but when we get to Gen 1:27 it is "one" creator creating. Not multiple.
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Re: inspired or dictated?

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1stjohn0666 wrote:When God is spoken to the bible ALWAYS uses singular personal pronouns. When God speaks he ALMOST ALWAYS speaks having singular personal pronouns except the 4 "us" texts that God included others in an action. Only assumptions can be made from scripture as to who or what the "us" is. I believe the us is other divine beings. With Gen 1:26 it does say "let us" but when we get to Gen 1:27 it is "one" creator creating. Not multiple.
And once again, that's the very definition of the Trinity. Are you absolutely sure you're not a Trinitarian? :mrgreen:
Let us proclaim the mystery of our faith: Christ has died, Christ is risen, Christ will come again.

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Re: inspired or dictated?

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1stjohn0666 wrote:When God is spoken to the bible ALWAYS uses singular personal pronouns. When God speaks he ALMOST ALWAYS speaks having singular personal pronouns except the 4 "us" texts that God included others in an action. Only assumptions can be made from scripture as to who or what the "us" is. I believe the us is other divine beings. With Gen 1:26 it does say "let us" but when we get to Gen 1:27 it is "one" creator creating. Not multiple.
The text in question is very clear, the "US" is part of the creative process:
Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the cattle and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth,” (Gen. 1:26, NASB)
Angels were NOT part of the creative process so God was not speaking to them.
Its not an assumption at all, but a simple fact that nowhere in the bible are angels part of the creative process, they are simply messengers or "warriors/guards" for God.
In Genesis we have these passages also:
"Then the Lord God said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil; and now, lest he stretch out his hand, and take also from the tree of life, and eat, and live forever," (Gen. 3:22, NASB).
“Come, let Us go down and there confuse their language, that they may not understand one another’s speech,” (Gen. 11:7, NASB).

In those passages God speaks of US but only God acts yet God says that "they" ( Us) will do it.
So, either God is lying or the writer is confused or God is more than He seems.
I take the view that God is more than He seems, but to each there own.
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Re: inspired or dictated?

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The us texts do not imply "God said to God" that is ridiculous thinking. Isa. 44:24 "alone" and "by myself" Matt 19:4 Jesus excludes himself from the creation. He does not even hint at "I with my Father made all things"
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Re: inspired or dictated?

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1stjohn0666 wrote:When God is spoken to the bible ALWAYS uses singular personal pronouns. When God speaks he ALMOST ALWAYS speaks having singular personal pronouns except the 4 "us" texts that God included others in an action. Only assumptions can be made from scripture as to who or what the "us" is. I believe the us is other divine beings. With Gen 1:26 it does say "let us" but when we get to Gen 1:27 it is "one" creator creating. Not multiple.

The us texts do not imply "God said to God" that is ridiculous thinking. Isa. 44:24 "alone" and "by myself" Matt 19:4 Jesus excludes himself from the creation. He does not even hint at "I with my Father made all things"
If only God alone created all the universe as Isaiah 44:24 says, ALONE, then the US in Genesis does not refer to other beings being involved at all in creation, therefore, your interpretation concerning who the US refers to is built upon a logical contradiction, thus not ture.

As for Matthew 19:4, depends on John 10:30c, 1 John 5:7 NKJV, 1 John 5:20, Isaiah 45:12 (note Hands refer to Son and Holy Spirit so Col 1:16 is true -Jer 27:5, Deut 11:2)

Please notice that in Rev 22:8, 9 an angel did not permit John to worship himself, next, why did Peter also refuse to be worshipped by Cornelius (Acts 10:25, 26c) were they not spokespersons speaking God's words?

Now look at this passage:

John 9:35-37, "Jesus heard that they had cast him out; and when He had found him, He said to him, "Do you believe in the Son of God?" 36 He answered and said, "Who is He, Lord, that I may believe in Him?" 37 And Jesus said to him, "You have both seen Him and it is He who is talking with you." 38 Then he said, "Lord, I believe!" And he worshiped Him." NKJV

If the worship of a mere men was rejected by Paul and Barnabas (Acts 14:11, 12, 13, 14, 15c,), why did Jesus let himself be worshiped? Please note Matthew 2:11 and Matthew 8:2, Matthew 9:18, Matthew 28:17

Why would Jesus let someone worship him when only God is to be worshiped as Exodus 20:3, 4, 5 reveals if He was not God manifest in human flesh?

To do so, would have caused Jesus to sin, violation of the First Commandment, if he was not one of the Panim of YHWH?

John666, Did Jesus Sin?

If Jesus was just only a mere man speaking God’s words and we have testimony of other mere mortal men and angels refusing to be worshipped as God, why did Jesus let himself be worshiped as God if He was not whom He claimed to be?

Rev 1:13-18 and in the midst of the seven lampstands One like the Son of Man, clothed with a garment down to the feet and girded about the chest with a golden band. 14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and His eyes like a flame of fire; 15 His feet were like fine brass, as if refined in a furnace, and His voice as the sound of many waters; 16 He had in His right hand seven stars, out of His mouth went a sharp two-edged sword, and His countenance was like the sun shining in its strength. 17 And when I saw Him, I fell at His feet as dead. But He laid His right hand on me, saying to me, "Do not be afraid; I am the First and the Last. 18 I am He who lives, and was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore. Amen. And I have the keys of Hades and of Death.

Note that there are three mentions of the phrase 'First and Last' in Rev 1:8 NKJV, Rev 1:11 NKJV, and Rev 1:17 NKJV - why?
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Re: inspired or dictated?

Post by 1stjohn0666 »

I say about the us texts, that God was speaking to "others" about him. God ALONE did create everything.
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