domokunrox wrote:Spock wrote:Your comment reveals a gross failure to understand the most basic elements of logic. When a proposition is written that refers to "persons A and B" it is understood to be referring to two arbitrary people and therefore necessarily applies to "ALL PEOPLE." A and B are merely variables, like in an algebraic equation.
If you want this conversation to continue, you will need to show that you understand your error since it will be impossible to reason with a person who cannot grasp the elementary principles of logic.
No, let me show you once again who is in error.
When a proposition is written, it refers to only things that are expressed in said proposition. You're guilty of a Non-sequitur.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non_sequitur_(logic)
I suggest you recognize your error since it is impossible to reason with a person who expresses disorderly thought and tries to pass it off as logic.
Spock wrote:The standard of moral symmetry is independent of me and any particular individual because it is a symmetry constraint on any moral statement that involves persons A and B.
A statement on persons A and B IS and ONLY IS a statement on persons A and B.
Not only that, but there is no axiom present.
Again, if you are trying to pass it off as "ME TOO!", you are committing Tu quoque
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tu_quoque
I applaud your attempt to be rational, but am dismayed by your dismal failure. There is a great irony in your comments because they contain a blatant non sequitur, the very thing you tried to pin on me. I did not mention the word "axiom" in my argument, and you did not state what "axiom" is supposedly missing or even why you mentioned it or what it has to do with anything. So I thought maybe the articles you linked might mention something about an axiom but that word is not found in either article. Therefore, your assertion that "there is no axiom present" is a blatant non sequitur that does not follow from anything you or I wrote. No one reading your comment has any clue what you are talking about. Your comments are literally meaningless.
Furthermore, your assertion that "A statement on persons A and B IS and ONLY IS a statement on persons A and B" indicates a profound failure to understand the most basic elements of logic. Consider the following logical assertion:
If person A begat person B then person B is a child of person A.
That applies to ALL PERSONS that ever existed. How is it possible you could fail to understand such basic logic?
domokunrox wrote:
Spock wrote:Your statement that "Physics is a constant conjunction" is meaningless because the word "conjunction" always refers to at at least two things. Physics is a "conjunction" with what? You didn't say. Your comment is therefore irrational.
No, the statement is not meaningless. Talking physics, you are talking about matter in motion.
Constant conjunction
Whenever A has occurred, B has occurred
"Whenever I've seen smoke, I've seen fire"
If you are speaking of physics. The matter in motion is seen, but what is
NOT SEEN is the NECESSITY. There is no necessary connection.
Necessary connection
Whenever A occurs, B
MUST occur
Whenever A occurs, A has the
POWER to MAKE B occur
Whenever A occurs in the future, B
WILL occur.
Because there is no necessary connection, there is no explanatory power.
Thank you for explaining what you meant. It helps me understand why you are so confused with my analogy between the symmetry principles of physics and morality. There is a lot more to physics than mere "constant conjunction of events A and B." I never used any such "constant conjunction" in anything I wrote (I'll comment more on its relation to causality below). You seem unaware of the large body of physical theories such as Quantum Mechanics and General Relativity that have great explanatory power. My argument is based on symmetry principles analogous to those physicists use to derive and understand the objective laws of nature. They have great explanatory power and apply directly to moral theory as is evident because the Golden Rule, the most universal of all moral principles, is based on moral symmetry. If we interchange person A with person B we get logically identical statements:
Person A can discern if action X affecting person B is moral if person A would be willing to be subject to action X by person B (everything else being equal).
Person B can discern if action X affecting person A is moral if person B would be willing to be subject to action X by person A (everything else being equal).
This is the root of our moral intuitions and the foundation of an objective moral theory with no reference to God. It is the "praxis" and the epistemological part of the theory because it tells people how to understand if something is moral or not and what to do. Similar principles, somewhat extended and clarified, form the ontological foundation for objective morality so we have a complete theory.
domokunrox wrote:
Spock wrote:And we see the same error in your statement "There is no necessary connection." Connection with what? Who said it was necessary? I specifically stated that moral symmetry is "analogous to the symmetry principles used in physics to derive fundamental universal laws such as the conservation of angular momentum which is implied by the rotational symmetry of space by Noether's theorem." I get the impression that this is all way over your head.
No, again, there is nothing analogous with symmetry principals in physics to "derive" "fundamental" "universal" "laws". You are trying to smuggle in
necessity in constant conjunction. If there is no necessary connection, there is no explanatory power.
And again, you have shown no understanding of the symmetry principles use to derive physical laws, so it is no surprise that you can't understand their analogous use in moral theory.
domokunrox wrote:
Spock wrote:And I am not "trying to pass off physics as metaphysics." I gave an analogy that you didn't understand. That's all.
No, thats EXACTLY what you are doing. I didn't misunderstand the analogy. You just don't know that you don't have the explanatory power that you think physics gives you. I've corrected you.
Physical theories like Quantum Mechanics and General Relativity have great explanatory power. Are you denying this fact?
domokunrox wrote:
Spock wrote:I explained but you have not understood my explanation, apparently because you don't understand basic logic that involves variables like "persons A and B."
No, I understood. However, you are wrong. You need a philosophy class to enroll in.
Dude, if ever a man should take his own advice, the time is now.
domokunrox wrote:
Spock wrote:Again, you fail to understand the most basic logic. Is the equation 1 + 2 = 3 "subjective" because "WE discern" it? Your comments make no sense at all. They are fundamentally irrational.
Where do these things called 1, 2, and 3 exist?
As explained in my previous post, that is a category mistake. The concept of "where" applies only to physical things. Abstract numbers and logic are not "things" that exist in a "place" except perhaps when they are instantiated in a mind (this is subject to debate). Now if you want to argue that there is a universal Mind that instantiates all abstract things and gives them a "place," then fine. That's the answer to your question. Are you a Platonist?
domokunrox wrote:
Even if you can prove that mathematics exist (and I seriously doubt you can prove such a thing exists), mathematics is the RELATIONS OF IDEAS and they are NECESSARILY CONNECTED. Its not the same thing when you are talking about PHYSICS, which is CONSTANT CONJUNCTION.
I'm really glad you are explaining yourself more. Your first post contained only disconnected fragments of your ideas so I had no idea what you were trying to say. I agree that mathematics (a subclass of logic) deals with relations between ideas, but it is false to say that physics deals only with "constant conjunction" - that phrase was coined by Hume in his discussion of causality, the fact that cause A is always conjoined with effect B. Physics deals with much more than mere causality and the theories of physics explain many things. They give us understanding of why the world behaves as it does. For example, why is Newton's First Law valid? Because space and time are symmetric under linear transformations. See how beautiful that is? We understand fundamental laws of nature based on concepts of symmetry.
domokunrox wrote:
Spock wrote:Of course you said "no" - you don't have a clue about what moral symmetry means or why it is objective despite the fact that I've repeatedly explained it.
I've repeatedly shown you that
your explanation has NO EXPLANATORY POWER!
The only thing you showed is that YOU fail to understand the explanatory power of physics.
domokunrox wrote:
Spock wrote:So you call me a "fool" for reading and understanding the plain and obvious meaning of the text? That explains a lot. If there were any truth to your claim, you wouldn't have to descend to such false and immoral insults.
Yes, you are a stubborn and ignorant fool because you don't understand academics, ancient history, ancient texts, and you don't want to understand in the proper context. I welcome you to continue discussing with everyone else on the subject. I am not interested in a debate on theology. There are plenty of other people who are well prepared to discuss that with you.
Your assertions are rude, false, and well below the dignity of any man of honor. You know nothing of my understanding of "academics, ancient history, ancient texts." You don't know anything about me at all! We have barely begun this conversation and you spew such unfounded absurdities at me? You should be ashamed of yourself.