RickD, somehow Noah knew which foods were unclean. Apparently the Lord at some time communicated to Noah what was forbidden to eat.
Genesis 7:1,2,8, 8:20: "Noah, 'Come into the ark ..... 2 ..... take with you seven each of every clean animal, a male and his female; two each of animals that are unclean ..... 8 Of clean animals, of animals that are unclean ....." 8:20: "Then Noah built an altar ..... and took of every clean animal and of every clean bird, and offered burnt offerings ....." --- New King James Version
Our Creator considered certain animals as forbidden to eat long before Moses was even born, and long before the Mosaic laws were formally established. The implication seems to be that the forbidden foods always were and always will be forbidden to eat. Apparently more clean animals were brought into the ark than unclean ones to provide edible food for Noah and his family during the year long voyage. This is why I say that the food laws predate the Mosaic food laws. Yes, there was no officially declared food law before Moses, but since Noah and his family were the only ones considered righteous during and after the Flood, it seems that a person in our day now would want to copycat Noah's dietary habits to at least try to be righteous, since that diet very much pleased the Lord.
Yes, I know, there was no officially declared Sabbath law before Moses. I should not have called it a law for people to obey living before Moses. But with our present day relatively vast knowledge of the Bible, it seems that Sabbath observance does predate Moses because God the Father (and Jesus, too, since they are in agreement over major issues) kept the Sabbath. Verses in the OT and NT reveal that God, and therefore Jesus, too, do not change. Therefore Both are still keeping the Sabbath, it would at least seem. Verses in the NT command us to mimic and copycat what Jesus, our Lord, does. Therefore it seems more than likely, that we, too, should keep the Sabbath, to be in agreement with Him.
I always thought that the 10 Commandments were part of God's laws.
Yes, I know that God made a covenant with Israel and not the fathers of the Israelites. Concerning us, though, the Lord wants to "graft" us gentile Christians into Israel, and therefore logically into what Israel was expected to do (or obey) as His chosen nation (Galatians 3:29).
People in this discussion use Matthew 5:17 often I notice. Has ANYBODY here really, really invested 5 minutes to look up what the Greek for "fulfill" is? I doubt it. We are supposed to be discussing eternal matters here. With eternal consequences at stake it is best to do things right the first time, and not to learn things the hard way, possibly with irreversible eternal consequences. If anyone has the bravery to see what fulfill means in the Greek, they will see that it refers overwhelmingly to simply adding more to something, and not fulfilling in a way that makes Christians no longer need to individually continue obeying the law.
There is nothing in the OT about Jesus doing something that would relieve believers of obeying the law. There is something, though, about Jesus doing something about the law.
MAGNIFYING IT. IMPROVING IT. ADDING TO IT. God the Father is referring to His Son, Jesus Christ in Isaiah 42:1-4,6,7,19-21.
Isaiah 42:21: "Jehovah is delighted for His righteousness' sake;
He WILL MAGNIFY the Law and make it honorable" --- Green's Literal Translation. Isaiah predicted that Jesus would MAGNIFY the law. No Old Testament prophet EVER even remotely hinted that Jesus would remove from each Christian the need to individually continue obeying the law. Other respected translations such as the John Nelson Darby Translation, A Conservative Version, English Jubilee 2000, New Heart English Bible, World English Bible, English Revised Version, American Standard Version with Strong's, Updated King James Version, American King James Version, KJV Pure Cambridge Edition, Rotherham Emphasized Bible, Julia Smith Translation, Noah Webster's KJV revision, Geneva Bible, Bishop's Bible, Coverdale's Translation, American Standard Version, Leeser Old Testament, Young's Literal Translation, Concordant Literal Version, and the Interlinear Hebrew Old Testament also use the word "magnify" in Isaiah 42:21.
Here are some examples of How Jesus MAGNIFIED the law and ADDED TO IT MORE FULLY, FILLING THE LAW MORE FULLY:
In His famous Sermon on the Mount, He added to or refined (improved) the law at least eight times: 1) Matthew 5:22: refining further the law prohibiting murder, merely being angry with someone without a cause or seriously insulting someone is now a very serious sin, 2) 5:28: just looking at a woman lustfully is now equivalent to adultery, 3) 5:32: whoever marries a divorced woman now commits adultery (there may be one exception), 4) 5:34: never swear at all, 5) 5:39-42: if you are slapped on one cheek, let yourself be slapped on the other cheek and do not refuse to loan or give to others if they ask for a loan or help (there are obvious common sense exceptions since some people might argue that Jesus does not expect us to unnecessarily severely injure ourselves or damage or ruin ourselves financially giving to drug addicts, financial predators, etc.), 6) 5:44: instead of hating our enemies, we are now instructed to love, bless, pray for, and do good to our enemies, 7) 6:15: we must now forgive others instead of holding a permanent grudge, and
7:1: do not judge others unless you want to be judged by the same criteria.
I would almost bet $100 that no one here, still, will look up what the Greek for "fulfill" in Matthew 5:17 really means using a Strong's concordance or Thayer's lexicon. Maybe I should bet $1,000.
Nothing above was copied from someone else's site.