It doesn't say that in 2:15, no. But it does say it in 1:26-28.jlay wrote:Actually it doesn't say that about man ruling over the world. It says that about the garden. "And the Lord God took the man, and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it." (Gen. 2:15) Obviuosly there had to be something to distinquish the garden from the rest of the world.In fact, it would only make sense.
And I do agree that the garden was distinct from the rest of the world. If you look at the text of 2:15 closely, it actually appears that Adam was created outside of Eden and then brought into it. I take it that what we are seeing there is that Adam is being shown the difference in an uncultivated vs. a cultivated world; Eden was a "starter set" of sorts, a template, if you will, of what God wanted Adam to do in the rest of the world. That is what He meant by "subdue" the earth.
I don't think you can take "in the garden" as evidence that they were not in it at the time. We both have kids. Haven't you ever been in a grocery store, maybe on the cereal aisle, and said something along the lines of, "Pick any cereal on the aisle you want." I have.This also brings into question the encounter with the serpent. The account never references the serpent as being "inside" the garden. In fact, the serpent references the garden as if it is located somewhere other than where this conversation took place. (Gen 3:1)
Of course, it'd be clearer with a demonstrative pronoun ("this") rather than just the article ("the"), but it's also well known that the article in Hebrew (and Greek, by the way) can have demonstrative force at times.
All that's to say, I just don't think that the phrase "in the garden" is very strong evidence that Eve and the serpent were not in Eden at the time of their conversation. You can certainly read it that way, but it doesn't seem that way at all, and given the fact that God clearly expels them from the garden later in chapter 3 (the serpent included), it seems that they were in it after all, which is what a rather straightforward reading of the text suggests, anyway.
Sure, I don't have any problem with that, although I think your last sentence goes too far. There is nothing mutually exclusive about the claim that the world was created without death and that the tree of life was the key. But beyond that, you have the fact that the text itself suggests that there was at least no carnivorous activity, in that animals and man are both clearly presented as herbivores prior to the fall (a fact that is confirmed by later prophets' (i.e., Isaiah) interpretation of Genesis 1). And death itself is presented as the consequence for sin in the text itself. That's beyond debate, so if someone wants to argue that there was already death in the world, they either have to assume it based on the way the operates today (which seems problematic, since the way the world operates today is postfall; that is to say, that approach begs the question), or else they have to justify it from the text itself. But there is nothing in the text of Genesis 1 to suggest that there was any death prior to Adam's sin--just the opposite, in fact, which, again, accords with later prophetic interpretation of Genesis 1.The Tree of Life was in the garden. God banished Adam from the Garden because the tree of life was there. "And the Lord God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever. (Gen. 3:22) It seems evident from the text that the key to life was the tree. Not that the earth was created without death.
Obviously, the text doesn't answer that question directly, but I think it stands to reason that it couldn't have been very long at all. God commanded Adam and Eve to be fruitful and multiply, but they didn't even conceive their first child until after they were expelled from the garden. That should be rather telling.So, if there was no death in the garden, then how long did Adam live there? A month? A year? 10 million years?
Certainly, but it's hardly an either/or. Mankind was directly cursed insofar as he was banished from the garden. But that doesn't change the fact that the text presents the entire earth as being cursed as well with him. And, in fact, if you read the text closely, it actually appears that being banished from the garden is a blessing of sorts, because God doesn't want Adam to live forever in his fallen state. The fallen state and its consequences, as outlined in 3:16-19, are the real curse.Thus it would seem that the curse of death upon mankind is directly related to being banished from the Garden.