I wanted to comment on some things you said in another thread.I didn't want to derail that one and I thought this would make a good community discussion on some of these issues, so I figured a new thread was most appropriate.
There are some Christians who adhere to the underlined part, but that is a theology technically called supersessionism or more commonly replacement theology. It does not provide the best answer in large part because Jesus Himself seems to repudiate it in Matt. 5:17 and in John 10:35. The actual answer to that question is that Christians never were under the Law (claims of some today like Gman notwithstanding, but they are very much in the minority here--I'll let them defend themselves). Paul says as much very plainly in Gal. 5:18. You might also find this paper helpful.Ivellious wrote:I'm no biblical scholar, but the take I've typically seen here is that modern day Christians don't have to adhere to these laws because the New Testament effectively replaces the old law with the new word of Jesus (unless I'm mistaken, which could happen). I have no idea how one could defend some of the hideous things mandated by the OT by modern standards, unless you simply say it was ok because "God said so." Obviously I cannot say I agree with that logic, but I've never heard it defended any other way personally.3. Old Testament law – don’t they promote evil (stoning of rape victims, Deut 22) and aren’t Christians hypocritical in not adhering to them today?
Anyway, that easily answers the second part of the question, but the first is really the important part, I think. I'm not a deontologist, so "Because God said so" doesn't work for me, either. On the other hand, I just don't accept bald assertions that things mandated in the OT were "hideous." You mention "today's standards," but I have to wonder what that even means. Whose standards? And why should those be considered the right ones? Are you suggesting that morality has evolved to a point where it is purer or better today than it used to be? But, again, by what standard (and that, of course, introduces the argument from morality for God's existence into the discussion). If you are simply appealing to your own preferences, then we can all just shrug our shoulders. It doesn't really matter if you think something is hideous or not if that is nothing more than a personal opinion. If, however, you are making an objective claim that some things mandated by Scripture are evil, then you have to defend that claim. And to that point, I'm not going to do your work for you. I would ask you to present your own case.
You've misunderstood this, too. We can't say that "Jesus' human body died" but that His "immortal God-self did not actually die." Persons die, not natures. So your explanation suggests that Jesus was actually two persons, one human that died, and one divine that did not. That is an old heresy called Nestorianism and was rejected way back in the 5th century. Second, God can't just "do whatever He wants." It's been long recognized that God cannot do logically impossible things, i.e., make square circles. The reason is simply that such "things" are not things at all. They are non-things, and omnipotence is the ability to do any thing.This seems like an odd question...I mean, sure, Jesus's human body died, but I'm pretty sure any Christian viewpoint has to accept the caveat that Jesus's immortal God-self did not actually die when he was crucified. Besides, God can do whatever he wants, right? If God wanted to physically die and be spiritually reborn the next day, why couldn't he?5. If Jesus was really God, why did he die?
Anyway, the traditional (and I think correct) argument is that Jesus, the person died. He was God in virtue of His divine nature, which existed side by side with His human nature. He did not die in virtue of His divine nature but in virtue of His human nature. In a similar way, God does not grow older (on classical theism, anyway) in His divine nature, since the divine nature does not exist within time. Yet Jesus, though God, grew older, but that in virtue of His human nature. Or again, though the divine nature is not spatially located (being omnipresent), Jesus, as God, was spatially located in virtue of His human nature. And so on.
Anyone is free to comment or add their own answers or takes on Ivel's words, of course. This is a public discussion board, after all. And, as we all know, Christianity is not monolithic, and my answers are in no way intended to suggest that these are the only ones. They are, however, intended to show that your ideas are at least out of sync with traditional Christianity.