nuthajason wrote:but biblically God does bring gifts in and out as needed.
God certainly uses the means that fit the need and His purposes; "bring gifts
in and out" is tendentious to the threshold of begging the question.
nuthajason wrote:does anyone heal with their shadow or a handkerchief these days? Has anyone stopped the sun recently or turned rivers to blood or stopped the rain?
This, IMO, is begging the question in the form of asking rhetorical questions that are not analogous to the point they are intended to support. Put simply, your point (in responding to another's post) is that the gift of speaking in tongues is not at present needed and therefore not being used. Were your rhetorical questions analogous, they would be: "Does God use the gift of healing today?"; "Does God use the gift of miracles today?". There is a second question-begging in this, at a more general level. On one hand, you suggest that God is not using the gift of speaking in tongues currently, because no genuine speaking in tongues is happening, currently. On the other hand, you force yourself into the position of claiming that no current purported speaking in tongues can be genuine,
because God has ceased (temporarily or permanently) using that gift. The conclusion of one argument is the premise for the other, and vice versa,
nuthajason wrote:in Israel's log history there were times of huge intervention by the Lord and times of quiet.
Are you saying that, because there is no Scriptural record of the 4 centuries between Malachi and the annunciations of the coming births of John the Baptist and Jesus that God had no prophets and did nothing miraculous in those centuries? You do know that both the Old and the New Testaments give the names of prophets whose prophecies are not part of Scripture? And do you think Scripture records every miraculous thing God has ever done? An argument from silence, such as this, is weak.
nuthajason wrote:a lot of which had no huge inbreaking of the kingdom.
Not sure what your point is in this sentence. Is this an allusion to the teaching (which I have some seen Cessationists make) that the entire book of Acts is a successive series of revelations with events peculiar to/for such revelations, and therefore no conclusions applicable to the present day can be drawn from any instance of speaking in tongues recorded in the book of Acts?
IF so, it may be cute and convenient doctrine, for Cessationists, but it has no Scriptural support (if I remember correctly, some one suggested that this be the standard for this present discussion: "sit with a bible and give me a good hermeneutical exposition").
now, the fruit of the spirit is a different thing and some gifts are still with us. I am however very suspicious of anyone who calls themselves a prophet. For me the bible is all sufficient, for every good work.[/quote]
I am not exactly
suspicious "of anyone who calls themselves a prophet", but I have and would in the future apply Paul's instructions in 1 Corinthians 14:29 and 1 Thessalonians 5:20-21, and John's in 1 John 4:1-3 to any purported prophecy. Did the Bible instruct you, specifically, what your gifts and ministries would be in the Body of Christ? What you would do to earn a living? As good and pious as, "For me the bible is all sufficient, for every good work," sounds, it goes beyond what the Bible teaches of itself. And if that statement was intended to be a reason for rejecting anything outside of the Bible purporting to be prophecy, take that argument to the One who gave prophets and the gift of prophecy to the Body of Christ. Ask Him why He would do such a thing. Tell Him you reject His prophets and prophecies, sight unseen and words unheard.
Speaking of, "sit with a bible and give me a good hermeneutical exposition" where is the Biblical evidence that God ceas
ed using the gift of speaking in tongues - but not teaching, not giving, not serving, not ... - after the First Century AD (or whatever date/event suits your purposes)?