Zephaniah 3:9

[Christian2]

3:9. For then I will convert the peoples to a pure language that all of them call in the name of the Lord, to worship Him of one accord.

When reading all of Zephaniah 3, it seems to be about the restoration of Israel.

I am puzzled about verse 9. It sounds like the text is talking about a language, such as Hebrew, English, etc. Is it?

If so, does it mean that Hebrew will be replaced with another language?

[PaulSacramento]

3:9. For then I will convert the peoples to a pure language that all of them call in the name of the Lord, to worship Him of one accord.

When reading all of Zephaniah 3, it seems to be about the restoration of Israel.

I am puzzled about verse 9. It sounds like the text is talking about a language, such as Hebrew, English, etc. Is it?

If so, does it mean that Hebrew will be replaced with another language?

IMO, it was a prophecy of the coming of the HS, when ALL would understand God regardless of language because they would come to Him by the HS and not by man.
Language would no longer be a barrier.
The HS is the undoing of the Tower of Babel.

[Christian2]

3:9. For then I will convert the peoples to a pure language that all of them call in the name of the Lord, to worship Him of one accord.

When reading all of Zephaniah 3, it seems to be about the restoration of Israel.

I am puzzled about verse 9. It sounds like the text is talking about a language, such as Hebrew, English, etc. Is it?

If so, does it mean that Hebrew will be replaced with another language?

IMO, it was a prophecy of the coming of the HS, when ALL would understand God regardless of language because they would come to Him by the HS and not by man.
Language would no longer be a barrier.
The HS is the undoing of the Tower of Babel.

Are you referring to the Pentacost?

[PaulSacramento]

3:9. For then I will convert the peoples to a pure language that all of them call in the name of the Lord, to worship Him of one accord.

When reading all of Zephaniah 3, it seems to be about the restoration of Israel.

I am puzzled about verse 9. It sounds like the text is talking about a language, such as Hebrew, English, etc. Is it?

If so, does it mean that Hebrew will be replaced with another language?

IMO, it was a prophecy of the coming of the HS, when ALL would understand God regardless of language because they would come to Him by the HS and not by man.
Language would no longer be a barrier.
The HS is the undoing of the Tower of Babel.

Are you referring to the Pentacost?

As the beginning of it ( symbolic and more so), yes.

[Christian2]

3:9. For then I will convert the peoples to a pure language that all of them call in the name of the Lord, to worship Him of one accord.

When reading all of Zephaniah 3, it seems to be about the restoration of Israel.

I am puzzled about verse 9. It sounds like the text is talking about a language, such as Hebrew, English, etc. Is it?

If so, does it mean that Hebrew will be replaced with another language?

IMO, it was a prophecy of the coming of the HS, when ALL would understand God regardless of language because they would come to Him by the HS and not by man.
Language would no longer be a barrier.
The HS is the undoing of the Tower of Babel.

Are you referring to the Pentacost?

As the beginning of it ( symbolic and more so), yes.

I posed this question to a Jew who teaches Hebrew and Greek. He said the Hebrew word safah translated as language here refers to "pure speech," referring to the idea that people use "impure speech" (such as lying and false oaths).

He also referred me to Isaiah 6, where the prophet says that he lives among a people of "unclean lips." This means a people that sins and does not speak purely. When it says that the people would be given "a pure lip", it means that their sins will be removed, that they will speak honestly and deal with truth.

Do you agree?

[Jac3510]

The teacher is correct. In addition to the lexical question, notice the parallelism of the text. The purity of speech goes with calling upon the name of the LORD. Further, the entire context is the conversion of Gentiles, so the purity of speech certainly has to do with calling upon the LORD rather than calling on false gods. It's actually a beautiful picture. In v.8, God tells Israel to wait on Him to justify them to the nations; in v.9-10 He promises that those very people (on whom He will poor out His wrath and who are presumably maligning Israel) will turn to the LORD in purse speech; and in v.11-13 God promises to exalt Isreal and that they will not "be put to shame" for their confession. It's a nice movement, and the whole emphasis is on who is making what confession and what will happen to them.

[PaulSacramento]

3:9. For then I will convert the peoples to a pure language that all of them call in the name of the Lord, to worship Him of one accord.

When reading all of Zephaniah 3, it seems to be about the restoration of Israel.

I am puzzled about verse 9. It sounds like the text is talking about a language, such as Hebrew, English, etc. Is it?

If so, does it mean that Hebrew will be replaced with another language?

IMO, it was a prophecy of the coming of the HS, when ALL would understand God regardless of language because they would come to Him by the HS and not by man.
Language would no longer be a barrier.
The HS is the undoing of the Tower of Babel.

Are you referring to the Pentacost?

As the beginning of it ( symbolic and more so), yes.

I posed this question to a Jew who teaches Hebrew and Greek. He said the Hebrew word safah translated as language here refers to "pure speech," referring to the idea that people use "impure speech" (such as lying and false oaths).

He also referred me to Isaiah 6, where the prophet says that he lives among a people of "unclean lips." This means a people that sins and does not speak purely. When it says that the people would be given "a pure lip", it means that their sins will be removed, that they will speak honestly and deal with truth.

Do you agree?

Oh yes, sure.
From the Jewish perspective indeed.
Now ask yourself HOW would that come about? Via Whom?
Prophecies tend to be far more than what they are on the "surface".

[Christian2]

The teacher is correct. In addition to the lexical question, notice the parallelism of the text. The purity of speech goes with calling upon the name of the LORD. Further, the entire context is the conversion of Gentiles, so the purity of speech certainly has to do with calling upon the LORD rather than calling on false gods. It's actually a beautiful picture. In v.8, God tells Israel to wait on Him to justify them to the nations; in v.9-10 He promises that those very people (on whom He will poor out His wrath and who are presumably maligning Israel) will turn to the LORD in purse speech; and in v.11-13 God promises to exalt Isreal and that they will not "be put to shame" for their confession. It's a nice movement, and the whole emphasis is on who is making what confession and what will happen to them.

Thank you.