Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by PaulSacramento »

Basically, I don't/cannot understand how something besides God, can be without beginning/eternal.
IF the universe is ALL that there is, was and ever will be ( all space-time) AND sustained by God, it means that whether or not it had a beginning is irrelevant since it could not exist other than BY God.
If It exists BY GOD then it could have existed with God forever, know what I mean?
Genesis 1:1
1 In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.

In the beginning of creation, God created the universe.
No, in the beginning of the creation process of the world as we know it, God created the Heavens and the Earth.
You are not suggestion that God created the universe and Earth at the same time are you?
Of course not.
So, Genesis can't be an account of the creation of the universe, it is an account of the creation of the world as we know it.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by RickD »

I'm not trying to be difficult just to be difficult. Please bear with me.
PaulS wrote:
IF the universe is ALL that there is, was and ever will be ( all space-time) AND sustained by God, it means that whether or not it had a beginning is irrelevant since it could not exist other than BY God.
If It exists BY GOD then it could have existed with God forever, know what I mean?
I can't see how an eternal/beginningless universe would need God. If it were eternal/beginningless, then it wouldn't be caused by God.
No, in the beginning of the creation process of the world as we know it, God created the Heavens and the Earth.
You are not suggestion that God created the universe and Earth at the same time are you?
Of course not.
So, Genesis can't be an account of the creation of the universe, it is an account of the creation of the world as we know it.
No, it doesn't mean the heavens and the earth were created at the same time.

Here:
Genesis 1:1

"In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth."

Volumes have been written about the first verse of Genesis. There are a two main interpretations of what this verse really means. Some say that the verse is a summary of the rest of the Genesis creation account. Others say that the verse represents the first creative act of God. How can we tell which interpretation is correct?
Day 1

The answer is really quite simple - keep reading! Reading Genesis 1:1 or any other Bible verse outside its context is one of the worst things that a person can do.2 When we look at Genesis 1:2,3 we see that it begins with the conjunction "and." This fact immediately tells us that Genesis 1:1 and 1:2 are part of one continuous thought. Remove the period at the end of Genesis 1:1 and read it as originally intended:

"In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth and the earth was formless and void...

Holman QuickSource Guide to Understanding CreationThe conjunction at the beginning of Genesis 1:2 tells us that Genesis 1:1 is not a summary of the creation account! This verse is a factual statement of what God did at the beginning of the first day. There are other context clues that tell us that this is not a summary statement. If we continue reading the Genesis creation account, we come to the real summary at the end (Genesis 2:1).4 It would be superfluous to have a second summary at the beginning. As we continue to read Genesis one, we will notice how succinct the creation account really is.

So, we conclude that the text claims that God created the heavens and earth on the first day. What do the heavens consist of? Stars, galaxies, etc. So, we know that God created, at minimum, the stars and the earth. Actually, the Hebrew phrase translated "heaven and earth" refer to the entire created universe. Some people claim that God created the earth first and that the rest of the heavenly bodies were created later. However, we are led to contemplate why God said that He created the "heavens and the earth." To accept this interpretation, we would have to say that God created "nothing" and the earth. If God had only created the earth, the Genesis 1:1 would have said, "In the beginning God created the earth." So, we can safely say that God created the entire heavens and earth at the beginning of the first creation day.
http://www.godandscience.org/youngearth/genesis1.html
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by abelcainsbrother »

It would present problems for Christianity if they proved the universe never had a beginning,however they won't ever prove it because science does not do truth.Our bible is the truth and true science is going to bear it out in time.Just because scientist or the media say something is true does not mean they have the evidence to back it up and we must be sharp enough to see through the facade. Satan is a liar and he deceives people and he is our enemy and we will expose his lies if we are alert to his lies.Don't forget about God confounding the wise,because he's going to do it.
Hebrews 12:2-3 Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith;who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross,despising the shame,and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.

2nd Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not,lest the light of this glorious gospel of Christ,who is the image of God,should shine unto them.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by Jac3510 »

RickD wrote:Ok, I see what you're saying. I was hoping I wouldn't make it more confusing, but I did. I apologize.

So I looked back to page 1, to see what lead me to say that. And this is what I said before:
I don't know if it's just me, but that doesn't make any sense. If something could exist eternally(without beginning or end), then it wouldn't be created, right?
I'm basically trying to figure out how something(the universe) which is made up of physical things, could be eternal/without beginning. As I understand God, His existence, nature, however you want to word it, God and only God is without beginning. And literally everything which is not God, was created. Everything in the universe is physically existing, so it needs to be contingent on something else, right?

How can anything physical be without a beginning? Do you see what I'm asking?

Basically, I don't/cannot understand how something besides God, can be without beginning/eternal.

Genesis 1:1
1 In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.

In the beginning of creation, God created the universe.

Or, the universe had no beginning, and God as we believe Him to be, doesn't exist. But don't fret, we've got pantheism.

This is what I see.

The only other possibility that I could see(if the universe is eternal), would be that the universe is part of God, but it wasn't made up of physical things at some point. y:-/
It feels lime you are confusing essentially ordered chains (EOCs) and accidentally ordered causal chains (AOCs). AOCs are "horizontal" chains. They go "back" in time. Think of dominoes.

Image

A domino falls and knocks over the next one, which knocks over the next one, which knocks over the next one, and so on. The important point for our purposes about AOCs is that once an effect has happened, you can take it away and the effect doesn't stop happening. Take one of the fallen dominoes off the table, and does that stop later dominoes from falling? Nope! They'll just keep falling.

EOCs are "vertical" chains. They go "up" to something causing their movement. Think of a fisherman drawing in a fish.

Image

The fish is being pulled up by the wire that is being drawn up by the reel that is being turned by the fisherman. The important point for our purposes about EOCs is that if you take away an effect, the effect stops happening immediately. If the line breaks or if the fisherman stops turning the reel, then the fish stops being pulled up.

I think you are familiar with that distinction, but I'm afraid you aren't applying it here. The argument for God's existence based on the beginning of the universe looks at the universe as an AOC (which is fine; we can do that). It goes back in time to the moment it all started, the Big Bang or whatever. It then asks what caused THAT. So in our analogy, we might ask what knocked over the first domino. The problem, though, is if the universe doesn't have a beginning then we cannot say that the universe has a cause. Let me restate for clarity: if the universe doesn't have a beginning, then arguments for God's existence that conceive of the universe in AOC terms fail, because the AOC has no temporal beginning (in God or otherwise).

BUT, suppose that the universe is beginningless an therefore the AOC arguments fail. Does that count against theism? No. Because the universe is still an EOC, and as an EOC, it still needs a Prime Mover, and that is, of course God. In other words, the whole EOC we call the universe needs an explanation, not in terms of temporal origin, but in terms of why it exists at all.

That would not be pantheism. On that view, you have a universe that has always existed separate and distinct from God and always contingent upon God, always being caused by Him. Here, God as "creator" would mean something like, "being caused by." God would be the universe's Creator insofar as He is the principle reason for its existence. And that, by the way, is not an odd usage. My five year old believes that God made the trees in our front yard. Is she wrong? Just because we can talk about germination and the growth cycle of a tree, just because it wasn't specially created, does it follow that the tree wasn't created by God? Of course not. Still less does it mean that the tree is God.

It's almost like you are suggesting that if there is no special, miraculous creation in time, then God is not Creator. That just strikes me as an odd view.

Anyway, my real point in bringing all that up is to point out that something without a beginning is not independent. That is, a beginningless universe is still contingent on God, and being contingent on Him, it is not identical to Him. We show that contingency via EOCs rather than AOCs. And, again, I think AOCs make for good arguments for God's existence, too. I just think that they are secondary arguments, and when we make them primary, we give atheists an easy (and stupid) "out." They can just deny the second premise of the KCA in a science-of-the-gaps sort of fashion and we've nowhere to go.

And as an aside, there are actually a LOT of theologians who would deny your claim that only God is beginningless. I'm not one of them. I think that only God is beginningless. But I know that after the fact, not just from looking at God's nature (I know that only God is eternal from looking at His nature). To use only two examples, Augustine and William Lane Craig would argue that lots of things are beginningless, not eternal. Alvin Plantinga, in fact, things that God Himself is dependent on some of these beginningless things. That's a stupid claim in my opinion. I'm just pointing it out because I think you should know that the basic idea you are working with isn't as obvious as you might think otherwise.
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by RickD »

Ok Jac. I appreciate you taking the time to explain this to me. Thank You.

I read your last post 3 times, and I'm afraid most of it went over my head. I'll try to address what I can.
Jac wrote:
BUT, suppose that the universe is beginningless an therefore the AOC arguments fail. Does that count against theism? No. Because the universe is still an EOC, and as an EOC, it still needs a Prime Mover, and that is, of course God. In other words, the whole EOC we call the universe needs an explanation, not in terms of temporal origin, but in terms of why it exists at all.
I understand the two examples you gave with the dominoes and the fisherman. But I don't understand how it would pertain to a beginningless universe. I just can't get my mind past the idea that something besides God can exist without a beginning to its existence. I can't see what explains why the universe exists at all, if it wasn't created by God, or by something else that somewhere down the line was created by God. With the universe being explained as an EOC, I can understand how God sustains it. I just don't see how the whole chain began in the first place.
That would not be pantheism. On that view, you have a universe that has always existed separate and distinct from God and always contingent upon God, always being caused by Him. Here, God as "creator" would mean something like, "being caused by." God would be the universe's Creator insofar as He is the principle reason for its existence. And that, by the way, is not an odd usage. My five year old believes that God made the trees in our front yard. Is she wrong? Just because we can talk about germination and the growth cycle of a tree, just because it wasn't specially created, does it follow that the tree wasn't created by God? Of course not. Still less does it mean that the tree is God.
I can't understand how something could always exist apart from God, and at the same time, be contingent upon Him. It just doesn't make sense to me.
It's almost like you are suggesting that if there is no special, miraculous creation in time, then God is not Creator. That just strikes me as an odd view.
Not really. I believe angels were possibly created before the universe, and the universe includes time.
Anyway, my real point in bringing all that up is to point out that something without a beginning is not independent. That is, a beginningless universe is still contingent on God, and being contingent on Him, it is not identical to Him. We show that contingency via EOCs rather than AOCs. And, again, I think AOCs make for good arguments for God's existence, too. I just think that they are secondary arguments, and when we make them primary, we give atheists an easy (and stupid) "out." They can just deny the second premise of the KCA in a science-of-the-gaps sort of fashion and we've nowhere to go.
And I can't grasp the idea that something(again, something physical or made up of physical things) without a beginning is not independent. I can't get around the idea that if something had no beginning, and wasn't created, its existence was never contingent on anything else. I believe only God had no beginning. And He is independent. If the universe had no beginning, I still can't see how its existence is contingent on God. Even with your EOC explanation.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by Jac3510 »

Ok, well let's just walk through the fisherman example because it is concrete. Less abstract stuff there. Give answer me a few questions (btw, I'm going to walk you through pretty much the same argument I walked NSV there in the post linked on the first page.

So let's assume for the sake of argument that the world has always existed infinitely into the past. It seems to me that we can still make the obvious observation that things are changing around us all the time, right? The fisherman reeling in a fish -- that's a change, right? I'll take that as a given and I'll ask you the same question I asked NSV before: can you agree that in any given change, the thing being changed is always being changed by something else? Take the moving fish. It is being moved by the fishing line. And take the line. It's being moved by the reel. And take the reel. It's being moved by the hand. And so on. Can you see how that is a universal principle?

So do you agree that If something is changing, it is being changed by something else? (And can you see how that question is valid whether the universe had a beginning in time or if it has always existed?)

edit: If it helps, you can see my brief explanation of this point to NSV here.
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by RickD »

So do you agree that If something is changing, it is being changed by something else? (And can you see how that question is valid whether the universe had a beginning in time or if it has always existed?)
Yes and yes.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by Kurieuo »

RickD wrote:
So do you agree that If something is changing, it is being changed by something else? (And can you see how that question is valid whether the universe had a beginning in time or if it has always existed?)
Yes and yes.
Can something that changes not be cause of its own change?
E.g., if I change my mind to do this or that, then am I not ultimately responsible for my changing?
How does that affect things.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by RickD »

Kurieuo wrote:
RickD wrote:
So do you agree that If something is changing, it is being changed by something else? (And can you see how that question is valid whether the universe had a beginning in time or if it has always existed?)
Yes and yes.
Can something that changes not be cause of its own change?
E.g., if I change my mind to do this or that, then am I not ultimately responsible for my changing?
How does that affect things.
Is that the same thing Jac is saying? Changing your mind doesn't literally mean your mind is changing. Are you trying to intentionally confuse me more than I am already? :twisted:
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by Jac3510 »

Good, Rick. So if things are changing, and if that which is changing is always being changed by something else, then we know that if the thing doing the changing is also being changed, then it too must be changed, and so on.

Woh. Long sentence! Simple illustration: A is changing (the fish being pulled up). So we know it is being changed by something else. Call it B (the line). So A is being changed by B (the fish is being changed by the line). Either B is changing or it is not. If it is changing (the line is being drawn in), then it is being changed by something else. Call it C (the reel). So B is being changed by C (the line is being drawn in by the reel). Either C is changing or it is not. If it is (the reel is being turned), then it is being changed by something else. Call it D (the fisherman's hand). And so on.

So, again, we see if the thing changing something else is itself changing, then it, too, must be being changed by something else. Can you agree with that?

----------------------------------

K, short answer: no. Nothing can change itself. Not even you changing your mind. There are at least three ways to prove this, but here's an easy enough one. If something is not changing, it is at rest. But nothing at rest changes unless it is acted upon by something else. I think if you let yourself just think on that a bit, that will be come self-evident. The third way (which is my preferred way, even if it is a bit more abstract) is to note that all change is a reduction of potentiality to act. That is, in any given change, there must be three things present: the thing itself, what it is (its actual state), and what it could be (its potential). It changes when what is potential becomes what is actual. That's illustrated in the old riddle: what is the one thing you lose every time you stand up? Your lap. Of course, nothing can be both actually and potentially the same way at the same time. I can't be both potentially standing and actually standing. I am one or the other. That's just the law of non-contradiction. But to say a thing changes itself would entail exactly that self-contradiction. For when the thing itself is always in act in the way it is at the moment. So to actualize a potentiality yourself--to change yourself--would mean that you are both actually what you are and actualizing a state of potentiality, which would mean in that regard you actually in that state of potentiality. And that's impossible.

Could say a lot more about the basic nature of change, but I'll leave it here for yours or Rick's (who whoever's) comments.

edit:

That's not to deny free will, btw. That's a whole other conversation. I just want to make it clear here that, in my mind at least, insisting that your mind is being changed by something else (ultimately, as I hope to show Rick, God), does not mean that you are not capable of making your own choices. I'd only ask here that if that becomes the main objection let's hold off on that, only because it is really a different question--the relationship between sovereignty and free will. If I'm right, that needs to be discussed, but as far as I see it, it's just a special problem in and of itself.
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by melanie »

I am following this and I'm curious about something Jac.
You're not saying that the universe is beginningless right?
Your just hypothesising that if it is that in no way diminishes God as being the first cause?
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by Jac3510 »

Correct, Melanie.
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by RickD »

So, again, we see if the thing changing something else is itself changing, then it, too, must be being changed by something else. Can you agree with that?
I agree. I'm still following you.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by Jac3510 »

Okay. So the next big point is that all of these sorts of causal chains have to have some sort of first mover, and that means that this type of causal chain can't be an infinite regress. Again, I have to emphasize that we are not talking about the types of causal changes that go back in time. We are talking about the types that happen "at the same time," where A is causing B which is causing C and so on.

The reason is that in these changes, the "power" is always coming through the changes and never from them. The fish being pulled is coming through the line. The line being moved is coming through the turning reel. The turning reel is coming through the moving hand, and so on. That's why we pointed out that if you stop any one of these effects, then the final effect ceases to change. But that means that there has to be something that the power isn't coming through but that is providing it in and of itself.

Let me use an illustration I've used before: a paintbrush. The paint is going on the wall because it is being moved by the bristles. The bristles are being moved by the the end of the brush. The end is being moved by the handle. The handle is being moved by the hand. But let's extend the handle and break it up into three parts: the end of the handle (connected to the bristles), the middle, and the beginning (connected to the hand). Strictly, we can say the end is moving because the middle is moving and the middle is moving because the beginning is moving. Now suppose that you put in an infinite number of middle pieces to the handle. That would mean that there would be no beginning to the handle. And if there were no beginning piece of the handle, then you would just have an infinitely long handle. Now . . . how could an infinitely long handle move a paintbrush. What is moving it? In that case, nothing at all would be moving it, and that is a self-contradiction (because nothing can't do something).

[edit](there's a subtle point here to be made. We are not saying, "There cannot be an infinite regression; therefore there is a first." We are saying,"There must be a first, therefore there cannot be an infinite regression," since if there was an infinite regression, there would be no first. The need for the first or principle cause of the changes is easier to see in my opinion. Again, just ask yourself, "What is causing the change?" In the fisherman example, is the line moving the fish or the fisherman? Ultimately, the fisherman. The line is just an intermediate cause, the the real, principle cause.)[/edit]

So, the bottom line: in these types of causal chains (the types in which the movement/change is powered by something else) there must be some first source of power, otherwise there would literally be nothing causing the change in question, right? And that means that there cannot be an infinite regression of changes, because if there were, then there would be nothing first powering the whole chain, right?
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: Yet *Another* Beginningless-Universe Model . . .

Post by Kurieuo »

RickD wrote:
Kurieuo wrote:Can something that changes not be cause of its own change?
E.g., if I change my mind to do this or that, then am I not ultimately responsible for my changing?
How does that affect things.
Is that the same thing Jac is saying? Changing your mind doesn't literally mean your mind is changing. Are you trying to intentionally confuse me more than I am already? :twisted:
It wasn't to just confuse you. ;)

I'd question that something that is changed, must necessarily have a cause beyond itself.
Such just doesn't seem immediately obvious. Extra arguments would need to be brought to bear to prove this.
See my comments to Jac below.
Jac3510 wrote:K, short answer: no. Nothing can change itself. Not even you changing your mind. There are at least three ways to prove this, but here's an easy enough one. If something is not changing, it is at rest. But nothing at rest changes unless it is acted upon by something else. I think if you let yourself just think on that a bit, that will be come self-evident. The third way (which is my preferred way, even if it is a bit more abstract) is to note that all change is a reduction of potentiality to act. That is, in any given change, there must be three things present: the thing itself, what it is (its actual state), and what it could be (its potential). It changes when what is potential becomes what is actual. That's illustrated in the old riddle: what is the one thing you lose every time you stand up? Your lap. Of course, nothing can be both actually and potentially the same way at the same time. I can't be both potentially standing and actually standing. I am one or the other. That's just the law of non-contradiction. But to say a thing changes itself would entail exactly that self-contradiction. For when the thing itself is always in act in the way it is at the moment. So to actualize a potentiality yourself--to change yourself--would mean that you are both actually what you are and actualizing a state of potentiality, which would mean in that regard you actually in that state of potentiality. And that's impossible.
Thanks Jac.

This is going to get quickly complicated.

Given I believe that God at creation entered into time in virtue of His true relationship with the created order, then I have to reject that change can never be internally caused.
As a general rule, yes, but not always -- not with God. To say such would be limiting God's power I feel. I'd agree that there can only be one uncaused causer.

I might believe otherwise if I saw a way to consistently hold to theses two states: "God existing without creation" and then "God existing with creation."
As I see matters, God acting from His timelessness to cause something new (creation) necessarily causes God to enter into the world.
I cannot accept that God's act (creation) is as eternal as God's being or existence.
Last edited by Kurieuo on Thu Feb 12, 2015 7:26 pm, edited 1 time in total.
"Whoever will call on the name of the Lord will be saved." (Romans 10:13)
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