Rick,
Thanks for the dialogue.
This is exactly the kind of interaction that I was looking for to help me work through the implications of my OP.
RickD wrote:
DBowling wrote:
There are a number of reasons that I believe that the death Paul refers to in Romans 5:12 is spiritual death.
1. Scripture indicates that human physical death existed before the Fall. 1 Corinthians 15:42-49 explicitly tells us that Adam's earthy body was a mortal perishable body. The presence of the Tree of Life in the Garden of Eden in Genesis 2 also shows that God was providing Adam and Eve with a remedy to mankind's inherent physical mortality prior to the Fall in Genesis 3.
I think you assume human physical death existed before the fall, because you assume there were other humans alive before A&E.
I assume that human physical death existed before the Fall, because of what Scripture says in Genesis 2 and 1 Corinthians 15 above.
I assume that humanity and human physical death existed beyond just Adam and Eve because history and anthropology clearly show that humans existed and had populated the whole globe 15,000 years before the 6000 BC timeframe where both Scripture and Mesopotamian history/legend place the historical Adam.
And since Scripture never states that Adam and Eve were the genetic progenitors of all mankind, then it is legitimate to comtrast the historical accuracy of the extraScriptural tradition that Adam and Eve are the genetic progenitors of all mankind with the extraScriptural historical data that indicates that mankind existed for tens of thousands (maybe up to 200,000) years prior to the Biblical/historical timeframe for the historical Adam.
If you are going to make a persuasive argument TO ME, about other humans being alive before Adam and Eve, I think you'll need to address the sin issue. You already said that the others died physically, but their death wasn't from sin. Did the others not sin?
I'm not sure I am able to make an argument that would be persuasive to you about the spiritual state of man prior to the fall because Scripture doesn't have much to say about it, and I'm currently working through those issues.
Here's what I've been able to put together from Scripture so far.
1. Prior to the Fall mankind was an image bearer of God (Genesis 1:26-27)
2. Prior to the Fall mankind was physically mortal (1 Corinthians 15:42-49)
3. At the time of the Fall, man's eyes were opened (Genesis 3:7)
4. This 'opening of eyes'' evidently included the knowledge of both good and evil (Genesis 3:22)
5. At the time of the Fall spiritual death passed among all men (Romans 5:12)
The verses that immediately follow Romans 5:12 are very interesting and appear to have direct relevance to this topic. I just haven't quite figured out how in my mind yet.
Romans 5:13-14
13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
And then there's this from Paul's sermon at Mars Hill (Acts 17:30)
Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all people everywhere should repent,
That's the Scriptural data that I'm looking at, but I haven't put it together in a model that I feel comfortable with yet.
And, if there were others alive outside the flood area, the flood wouldn't have affected them. How would you explain God not punishing them for their sin?
This is a very different situation from humanity prior to Adam.
At the time of Noah spiritual death had passed to all mankind.
The reason all of humanity wasn't punished for their sin is very simple, the grace of God. This is the very same reason that sinful mankind is alive today. All of mankind are image bearers of God, and it is God's desire that all men should be saved.
As I mentioned earlier the specific target of Noah's Flood were God's chosen people (the descendants of Adam) who had rebelled against God and the sinful culture that they had been corrupted by.
Again the only human population that Scripture claims was punished and destroyed by the Flood was all mankind who were dwelling 'in the land'. 'In the land' is the very same scope that Scripture uses to define the geographical extent of the Flood.
I'm not going to say I'm discounting your argument. I just think you need to address these things.
Hopefully this addresses at least some of the issues you brought up.
In Christ