"Lordship Salvation"

Discussions surrounding the various other faiths who deviate from mainstream Christian doctrine such as LDS and the Jehovah's Witnesses.
DBowling
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by DBowling »

Jac3510 wrote: If you would like to respond to the substance of my claims as to why and how LS'ers redefine "faith," I would be open to discussing your perspective on my perspective.
It shouldn't come as any surprise that I totally reject the premise that I am in any way shape or form redefining faith.
I at least appreciate that you seem willing to accept the lexical definition (unless I've misread you there)
You are right, as demonstrated by my recent back and forth with Rick, we do embrace the same lexical definition of faith.

My most recent back and forth with Rick also demonstrates how the concepts of submission, commitment, and repentance are natural and integral components of that lexical definition of faith/trust within the Gospel context of...
Trusting in the person of Jesus Christ to save me from my sin.

No packing or overloading involved anywhere...

Regarding your statement...
someone entrusts themselves to Jesus--even if they refuse to love, worship, or obey Him--then they have everlasting life. If you don't believe that, then you don't believe the gospel.
Here is my equivalent statement
If someone entrusts themselves to Jesus to save them from their sins then they have everlasting life... period.

I don't think anyone can deny that salvation from sin is what we trust Jesus to do according to the Gospel.

regarding...
even if they refuse to love, worship, or obey Him
This involves sanctification...
And the debate there is if that is even possible, but again that is a sanctification debate...

In Christ
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Jac3510
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by Jac3510 »

DBowling wrote:It shouldn't come as any surprise that I totally reject the premise that I am in any way shape or form redefining faith.
Sure, but my claim that you are redefining faith is not a premise. It's a conclusion.
You are right, as demonstrated by my recent back and forth with Rick, we do embrace the same lexical definition of faith.
Then I think you need to deal in more detail with the argument I've presented to reach the conclusion I do. Even your comments below don't address the substance--the actual premises--of my position.
My most recent back and forth with Rick also demonstrates how the concepts of submission, commitment, and repentance are natural and integral components of that lexical definition of faith/trust within the Gospel context of...
Trusting in the person of Jesus Christ to save me from my sin.

No packing or overloading involved anywhere...
No, your back and forth shows no such thing, which I've already commented on. Echoing Rick, I had said,
  • You're seeing "faith" as a theological construct, a "biblical idea" you "define" by combining ideas from this verse and that verse. That commits a hermenutical and lexical fallacy called "illegitimate totality transfer." The fact is that the Greek and Hebrew words we translate "believe" (Pisteuo and aman, respectively) have a lexical meaning, and that meaning, and that meaning alone, is the meaning of the word. And the absolute, indisputable fact is that the ideas of "repentance, submission, and commitment" are not lexically or semantically related to "believe." You have read those words into our word, and as such, you simply do not believe what the text says as written. Instead, you believe what you have reinterpreted it to mean based on your broader theology. But as it happens, your broader theology is wrong, and were we to explore it, you would see that your argument turns out to be circular--which it must be, since you get your "definition" of "faith" from your theology, but since your theology is read back into the very text you are exegeting.
You responded to Rick that you accepted the lexical meaning but that while submission and commitment are not semantically related, they are "naturally" related (whatever that means) insofar as it "implies some level of submission and commitment." But now you contradict yourself. Remember, the argument is that the lexical meaning--trust--doesn't include those ides. You agree but then say a natural implication means those ideas are present in the word after all. You can't have that both ways. And that gets into what I said here (I believe without comment from you):
  • You are wanting to talk about the ontology of belief, but you've gotten way ahead of yourself. This question is linguistic, not ontological. The question is what the word "belief" (or better, pisteuo) actually means. That's a lexical question, and what it means is comparable to what the English word "trust" means. You can't get around to asking ontological questions until you already understand what this text means, and that, in turn, means that you can't bring an ontology of belief to the text to understand the text. That's doing eisegesis in the same way that using systematic theology to understand a text is doing eisegesis. And, of course, that's not to say that there is not an ontology of belief or that such conversations are useless. They are useful. But they are useful after exegesis because they are informed by exegesis, never vice-versa.
I'm construing your comments above to be sympathetic to K's points. Your idea of "natural" relation (as opposed to lexical relation) seems to be ontological. That is, you seem to be talking about "real" faith or else constituent parts of "real" faith--trust is only really trust when it presumes submission and commitment. But my point is that, methodologically, you can't do that. You are begging the question. Where do you get the idea that submission and commitment are part of trust? Not from the definition of the word--we've established that there is no lexical connection between the two worlds of ideas. You get it from your own theology (as you talk about distorting the "Scriptural meaning" of "faith"). But where do you get your theology from? From the text. And yet, the meaning of the text is established via exegesis of the words. And yet, we've established that you cannot get "submission and commitment" from a lexical analysis of "faith." Thus, if you get those ideas from the word, then you are getting it from other Scriptures--but not from those words, since there is no lexical connection . . . in other words, you are getting it from other Scriptures that you are reading your theology into.

Again, DB, you methodology is flawed. You are practicing sytematic theology before exegetical theology. You just can't do that. When you look at what the words actually say, you cannot affirm what you are affirming. You have to start explaining things away. Take John 12:42. The pharisees would not confess Jesus even though they believed in Him. Far from commitment, there was disloyalty and a preference for the praise of man! What about Simon Magus? The text says that he believed. What about the second and third seeds in Jesus parables of the four soils? LS'ers insist they aren't saved, but yet the text says they believed. No submission, no commitment. The text is filled with examples of that.

I don't raise those examples to argue against your point. I'm raising them for a different purpose, which is this: if you don't get your claim that submission and commitment are ontologically related to faith via the lexicon (established), and if you accept my critique that you cannot get it from interpretation of other Scripture without falling into a circular argument, then the only other avenue for you is to claim that you get it from the "natural meaning" of the word, which is to say, from philosophy/normal reason. That means you are making an argument from reason. But the above examples demonstrate examples in which submission and commitment are not present even though belief is. They, then, serve as a defeater for any such claim. And therefore, this aveneue is also closed off to you. The only way forward in this realm is to explain away such texts by saying they didn't have "real" faith--which is, again, just begging the question; a circular, and therefore irrational, argument.

Now, we can do an ontological analysis of faith--that is, following the third way here. But you'll find if we do absolutely no way forward for your theology. You simply cannot sneak in ideas foreign to the word through a backdoor. That is redefining it.
Regarding your statement...
someone entrusts themselves to Jesus--even if they refuse to love, worship, or obey Him--then they have everlasting life. If you don't believe that, then you don't believe the gospel.
Here is my equivalent statement
If someone entrusts themselves to Jesus to save them from their sins then they have everlasting life... period.
But of course that isn't an equivalent statement, as you qualify below.
regarding...
even if they refuse to love, worship, or obey Him
This involves sanctification...
And the debate there is if that is even possible, but again that is a sanctification debate...
Your statement then is not at all equivalent. Now, if you like, we can be a bit more technical with your own words: feel free to substitute "love, worship, or obey" with "submit and commit," but here I'l just accuse you of playing semantics. Per my joke a few pages back, we all know that you affirm that where those things are lacking, faith is lacking, precisely because the faith is not "real."

-----------------------------------

So let me summarize all of the above. You have made the outstanding claim that the verb "believe" necessarily includes (in some undefined sense) the ideas of submission and commitment. You have not, however, shown in what sense those ideas are included or how those ideas relate to the broader LS position in oppositio to the FG position. Moreover, you have claimed that those ideas are not lexically related and admitted that we are bound to the lexical meaning of the text. Therefore, you are under obligation to demonstrate all of these things: how the ideas of submission and commitment are related (necessarily) to belief if not by lexicon; and how those ideas are fitted into a proper argument such that they entail the conclusions of LS over and against the conclusions of FG.

I, for one, have a very simple argument:

1. Jesus says that trust is a sufficient condition for salvation;
2. Anything not included in the definition of trust (or necessarily presumed by it) is not therefore a condition of salvation;
3. Ideas like submission and commitment are by definition and nature not included in the definition or presumption of trust (see examples as evidence);
4. Therefore, such ideas are not conditions for salvation.

To slightly extend the argument

5. To say something is a condition for salvation that is not is to present a false gospel
6. LS'ers say that submission and commitment are conditions of salvation
7. Therefore, LS'ers present a false gospel
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by DBowling »

Jac3510 wrote:
DBowling wrote:It shouldn't come as any surprise that I totally reject the premise that I am in any way shape or form redefining faith.
Sure, but my claim that you are redefining faith is not a premise. It's a conclusion.
I would consider it more of an assertion than an accurate conclusion, but I don't expect any agreement on that.
You are wanting to talk about the ontology of belief, but you've gotten way ahead of yourself. This question is linguistic, not ontological.
The context that a word is placed in is a significant contributer to the meaning of a word within that specific context, so yes, context is significant to the meaning of a word.

And based on some of your comments below, I think it would be helpful to understand our differences in the Gospel context.
Regarding your statement...
someone entrusts themselves to Jesus--even if they refuse to love, worship, or obey Him--then they have everlasting life. If you don't believe that, then you don't believe the gospel.
Here is my equivalent statement
If someone entrusts themselves to Jesus to save them from their sins then they have everlasting life... period.
But of course that isn't an equivalent statement, as you qualify below.

So do you believe that this statement is an accurate representation of the Gospel?
"If someone entrusts themselves to Jesus to save them from their sins then they have everlasting life... period."

If not, please point out which portion of my statement you believe to be a distortion of the Gospel.

In Christ
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by SoCalExile »

It's tragic how LS apologists and teachers have to redefine "works" as something that doesn't include the long list of personal accomplishments that must be met for salvation, when the Greek word for "works" (ergon) refers to "a deed (action) that carries out (completes) an inner desire (intension, purpose)". Which is a broad definition that encompasses everything that LS demagogues prescribe.
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by RickD »

I'm thinking that LS proponents don't call them works, because they believe it is the work of the Holy Spirit, alone. I guess it shows the fundamental disagreement regarding the believer's role in being a disciple.

We see them as works, because we believe we have to cooperate in the work of being a disciple. LS proponents, believe the Holy Spirit changes a believer, regardless of any cooperation or lack thereof, on the part of the believer. So to them, it's the HS doing the works completely. Not us having a cooperative role.

It's actually similar, in that way, to Catholicism.
John 5:24
24 “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.


“A nation of sheep will beget a government of wolves.”
-Edward R Murrow




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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by SoCalExile »

RickD wrote:I'm thinking that LS proponents don't call them works, because they believe it is the work of the Holy Spirit, alone. I guess it shows the fundamental disagreement regarding the believer's role in being a disciple.

We see them as works, because we believe we have to cooperate in the work of being a disciple. LS proponents, believe the Holy Spirit changes a believer, regardless of any cooperation or lack thereof, on the part of the believer. So to them, it's the HS doing the works completely. Not us having a cooperative role.
Which is nonsense, considering all the epistles are written to correct believers and encourage them to "walk in the Spirit" in some way, which totally undermines that idea.

Then there's the "two natures" and Romans 7, where even Paul admits he doesn't always walk in the Spirit.
It's actually similar, in that way, to Catholicism.
It's similar in a lot of ways.
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by Philip »

Rick: I'm thinking that LS proponents don't call them works, because they believe it is the work of the Holy Spirit, alone. I guess it shows the fundamental disagreement regarding the believer's role in being a disciple.

We see them as works, because we believe we have to cooperate in the work of being a disciple. LS proponents, believe the Holy Spirit changes a believer, regardless of any cooperation or lack thereof, on the part of the believer. So to them, it's the HS doing the works completely. Not us having a cooperative role.

It's actually similar, in that way, to Catholicism.
But the impact of the belief is very damaging - both to those who think they can discern whether works are definitely non-existent, and for those who hear this particular articulation of belief, and then try to apply it to themselves or others as some supposed validating measuring stick. I really get sick thinking of all those people whom ARE saved, but are constantly in anxiety because they can't discern some level of works that PROVES it. I'm not saying this is DBowlings assertion, but it is what I glean when hearing someone like Paul Washer preach.
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by Kurieuo »

I don't even know what is intended by "Lordship Salvation", so I guess I entertained the wrong thread.
I'll just backward step now out of the thread... :oops:
"Whoever will call on the name of the Lord will be saved." (Romans 10:13)
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by Kurieuo »

Well, I just read Philip's opening post and the definition here:
https://carm.org/what-is-lordship-salva ... t-biblical

I do not agree with such (LS), which should be apparent if my fuller words are read.
Serves me right for just coming in midway. Again :oops:
"Whoever will call on the name of the Lord will be saved." (Romans 10:13)
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by RickD »

Kurieuo wrote:I don't even know what is intended by "Lordship Salvation", so I guess I entertained the wrong thread.
I'll just backward step now out of the thread... :oops:
Go ahead and quit while you're behind. :wave:
John 5:24
24 “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.


“A nation of sheep will beget a government of wolves.”
-Edward R Murrow




St. Richard the Sarcastic--The Patron Saint of Irony
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by Kurieuo »

RickD wrote:
Kurieuo wrote:I don't even know what is intended by "Lordship Salvation", so I guess I entertained the wrong thread.
I'll just backward step now out of the thread... :oops:
Go ahead and quit while you're behind. :wave:
I don't think I'll ever catch up to your post count Rick, I'm not sure I want to even try. :P
"Whoever will call on the name of the Lord will be saved." (Romans 10:13)
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by Jac3510 »

DBowling wrote:I would consider it more of an assertion than an accurate conclusion, but I don't expect any agreement on that.
No, it's an argument. I've provided a very detailed, even enumerated, argument in the form of a syllogism to explain it. Your refusal to interact with the argument and just assert is just another example of you being fallacious and irrational.
The context that a word is placed in is a significant contributer to the meaning of a word within that specific context, so yes, context is significant to the meaning of a word.

And based on some of your comments below, I think it would be helpful to understand our differences in the Gospel context.
Typical genre fallacy. With all due respect, you don't understand how linguistics, and specifically lexicography work. I would recommend to you Moises Silva's book Biblical Words and Their Meaning. Likewise, if you have access, I'd highly recommend Howe's article, "Does Genre Determine Meaning" (intro available here). The crux of that argument is that it is a fallacy to say that you have to understand the genre of a book to understand its meaning. Take Proverbs, which is regarded as wisdom literature. How do we know that? Because we read it. We understand it. Having understood it, we now know how to classify it. If we couldn't understand it without first understanding the genre, we wouldn't ever be able to understand it. Now genre can enhance our understanding of the meaning of material, but it doesn't determine the meaning. And so here with contextual studies around words. The word "faith" has a certain range of lexical meanings (called the semantic domain). Yet how did we get around to defining that range of meaning in the first place? And how do you choose this rather than that meaning for any given polysemy? You want to say "context," and that's true, but bear in mind that the context is made up of words, and those words must first be understood. So while people say context is king, the fact of the matter is that the lexicon is king. And absolutely no context in the world can or is going to change the basic meaning of faith as trust, nor is it going to add ideas that are not already there (unless it is making a technical term out of it, and any given technical term first has to understand and explicitly reject limiting itself or employing the non-technical meaning; so even here, the lexical meaning gets the priority).

Once again, DB, the onus is on YOU to demonstrate your claim that the lexical meaning of "faith" is not sufficient--that is, that the proposition, 'whoever believes in Jesus is saved' is true as written, without qualifying or adding to the meaning of 'believes.'
So do you believe that this statement is an accurate representation of the Gospel?
"If someone entrusts themselves to Jesus to save them from their sins then they have everlasting life... period."

If not, please point out which portion of my statement you believe to be a distortion of the Gospel.

In Christ
Because you are using the word "entrust" to mean something different than I am or what the word itself actually means. I would say this:

"If someone entrusts themselves to Jesus to save them from their sins then they have everlasting life... period."

You would say this:

"If someone entrusts[2] themselves to Jesus to save them from their sins then they have everlasting life... period."

Your statement is false because you have redefined "entrust" to include/presume notions of submission and commitment that are foreign to the word--foreign lexically, foreign philosophically, foreign logically, and foreign biblically.

So I've answered you in some detail. I would appreciate it if you would do the same for me. I'm not asking for a line by line response. I am asking you for a response to my actual argument.
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by RickD »

Kurieuo wrote:
RickD wrote:
Kurieuo wrote:I don't even know what is intended by "Lordship Salvation", so I guess I entertained the wrong thread.
I'll just backward step now out of the thread... :oops:
Go ahead and quit while you're behind. :wave:
I don't think I'll ever catch up to your post count Rick, I'm not sure I want to even try. :P
Yes, but you're light years ahead of me when it comes to meaningful posts.
John 5:24
24 “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.


“A nation of sheep will beget a government of wolves.”
-Edward R Murrow




St. Richard the Sarcastic--The Patron Saint of Irony
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by SoCalExile »

Kurieuo wrote:Well, I just read Philip's opening post and the definition here:
https://carm.org/what-is-lordship-salva ... t-biblical

I do not agree with such (LS), which should be apparent if my fuller words are read.
Serves me right for just coming in midway. Again :oops:
Too bad Matt Slick glosses over the details.
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Re: "Lordship Salvation"

Post by Philip »

Jac, I'd like to get that book - I'd enjoy some light, entertaining reading, for a change! :lol: I doubt any brief introduction to to lexical semantics will suffice a much deeper understanding of it. Because I know many here understand also the critical importance of not taking words out of their given context, or to determine supposed meanings without comparing them precisely to a very similar point or situation used in other passages - or is further illuminated elsewhere within the same context.

What I've really enjoyed about this debate, is that the reality of the issue REALLY matters - unlike some of the other topics that have been redundantly debated around here (like Calvinism, OEC vs. YEC, etc.).
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