DBowling wrote:Per your request, I have demonstrated how the idea of commitment is related to belief by lexicon.
No, you have
asserted. A demonstration requires an explanation of the component parts in ways that the simpler points entail the latter. Not only have you not done that, I have pointed out that what you have offered is fallacious insofar as it conflates two distinct meanings of "commit," is absurd in the application, and is defeated by the use the term itself (so see John 12:42).
But now that the lexicon supports my assertions and contradicts yours, all of a sudden the lexicon is 'irresponsible'. I think I detect a little bit of a double standard here.
No, it's not, but I don't think you understand Greek well enough for me to explain it to you. But rather than appeal to my own authority, which includes an undergraduate degree in this stuff plus two masters in the same material, I already appealed to the authority of the very lexicon you are citing. The 2nd edition does not have the gloss. So what . . . you think the scholarship of the definition of
pisteuo suddenly advanced enough to introduce an entirely novel aspect into it that was not there before? I ask this in all sincerity, DB, since you feel qualified to point out why the 3rd edition is superior to both previous editions as well as other standard Greek lexicons: what specific findings can you cite between the publication of the 2nd and the 3rd edition of BDAG that justify its updated definition?
That is not a rhetorical question. I'm going to demand an answer to that.
In your personal opinion... I have provided a lexicon quote that disagrees with you.
No, it's not personal opinion. I've offered facts. I've offered actual definitions. You don't get to call things you disagree with "opinion." And even if it is, on what basis do you challenge my opinion? Here I will appeal to my authority. What evidence do you have that my reasoning is wrong? What sources do you cite? You've cited a single lexicon that I have impeached and am requiring you defend. And now you simply wave your hand and dismiss a rather detailed analysis of the root of your argument?
DB, don't become dishonest. Such is unbecoming, to put it mildly.
Two issues...
First there is the lexical definition of faith, which I stipulate to and agree with.
You do not agree with it. You agree with the same words, but agreeing with words does not mean that you agree with their meaning. For example, every Catholic will say, "We are saved by grace through faith." You will say the same. But you do not believe the same thing the Catholics do because you define the terms differently. Therefore, I require you, in the interest of honest discussion and reasonable discourse, to stop citing agreement where there is none.
Then there is how the Gospel context affects the meaning of the word.
Again, I have already addressed this under the discussion of genre fallacy. Stop raising arguments I've already addressed as if I have not.
I do not disagree with the lexical meaning of faith at all.
However, I do disagree with some of your 'redefinitions'.
I think it is telling that you consider it ok to subtract from the lexicon definition of faith when it contradicts your personal opinion.
What happened to your moral outrage at those who try to redefine faith?
So it is clear that you are basing your entire argument now on BDAG 3rd ed. Answer, then, my first question. I've pointed out that the 1st and 2nd editions do not have that gloss. I will add here. Louw and Nida do not have that gloss. Strong's does not have that gloss. Mounce's analytical lexicon does not have that gloss. Thayer does not have that gloss. Liddell and Scott do not have that gloss in either the standard or intermediate lexicons.
So, again, what new discoveries can you cite by which we should accept the gloss of BDAG3 over all the others?
The outrage is certainly there. And in my outrage, I subtract the unqualified addition. I am not merely asserting the addition is unqualified. I am argument it on:
1 - my own authority as one who has 9 years of formal theological and linguistic training;
2 - the authority of previous editions of the same lexicon; and
3 - the authority of all other lexicons
On all three of these points, the evidence is absolutely clear: there is full agreement against BDAG3. Now, you want to say that all other authorities are wrong and that BDAG3 is correct. Again, then, rather than simply asserting a part of the meaning has been distracted, I'm going to ask you to back up and document your claim. I've done that. Let's see you. If not, I'm going to ask you to retract your claim as unsubstantiated.