John 20 in context:
19 In the evening of that first day of the week, the disciples were gathered together with the doors locked because of their fear of the Jews. Then Jesus came, stood among them, and said to them, “Peace to you!”
20 Having said this, He showed them His hands and His side. So the disciples rejoiced when they saw the Lord.
24 But one of the Twelve, Thomas (called “Twin”), was not with them when Jesus came. 25 So the other disciples kept telling him, “We have seen the Lord!”
But he said to them, “If I don’t see the mark of the nails in His hands, put my finger into the mark of the nails, and put my hand into His side, I will never believe!”
26 After eight days His disciples were indoors again, and Thomas was with them. Even though the doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them. He said, “Peace to you!”
27 Then He said to Thomas, “Put your finger here and observe My hands. Reach out your hand and put it into My side. Don’t be an unbeliever, but a believer.”
28 Thomas responded to Him, “My Lord and my God!”
29 Jesus said, “Because you have seen Me, you have believed. Those who believe without seeing are blessed.”
Most commentaries say that Thomas called Jesus his Lord and his God.
However, a few people think that Thomas was merely believing that Jesus rose from the dead because he needed to see the marks of crucifixion on Jesus in order to believe. Jesus' response to Thomas fits, verse 29: “Because you have seen Me, you have believed. Those who believe without seeing are blessed.”
Reading the Scriptures in context it does seem that this is what Thomas is responding to.
But it seems in that case Thomas would have said something like: "God has raised Jesus from and dead and now I believe it because I have seen the marks on His body."
The only part that does not fit is Thomas calling Jesus his Lord and his God.
But even this confession does not seem to fit. Thomas should have said something like: "Now I believe that my Lord and my God has raised you from the dead.
What do you guys think?
Thanks.
John 20:28, My Lord and My God
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Re: John 20:28, My Lord and My God
Only a person ignoring or ignorant of many passages of Scripture, both OT and NT, would deny that Jesus was prophesied to be the Messiah, that He would be God, and that He claimed to be God, that His apostles considered Him to be God:
http://www.godandscience.org/doctrine/w ... s_god.html
http://www.godandscience.org/doctrine/w ... s_god.html
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Re: John 20:28, My Lord and My God
Good stuff. Thanks.Philip wrote:Only a person ignoring or ignorant of many passages of Scripture, both OT and NT, would deny that Jesus was prophesied to be the Messiah, that He would be God, and that He claimed to be God, that His apostles considered Him to be God:
http://www.godandscience.org/doctrine/w ... s_god.html
I also found this:
This is literal reading of the Greek text:
. . . ο κυριος μου και ο θεος μου.
ο κυριος - the Lord
μου - of me
και - and
ο θεος - the God
μου - of me
Thomas address Jesus as both his Lord and his God. Jesus was Lord being the man and God being the Son (John 5:23-24; John 14:6, 9; 1 John 5:20; John 17:3).
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Re: John 20:28, My Lord and My God
One of the primary themes that John comes back to over and over in his Gospel is... Jesus is God.
John makes this theme very clear, starting with the very first verse of his Gospel, John 1:1.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
And throughout his Gospel, John repeatedly provides evidence to support this theme.
Taken within the context of John's theme regarding the Divinity of Jesus throughout his Gospel, combined with the immediate context of Jesus rising from the dead, I don't think that there is any doubt that John's record of Thomas's response to the risen Jesus, "my Lord and my God" is anything other than a confession that Jesus is "Lord and God".
John makes this theme very clear, starting with the very first verse of his Gospel, John 1:1.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
And throughout his Gospel, John repeatedly provides evidence to support this theme.
Taken within the context of John's theme regarding the Divinity of Jesus throughout his Gospel, combined with the immediate context of Jesus rising from the dead, I don't think that there is any doubt that John's record of Thomas's response to the risen Jesus, "my Lord and my God" is anything other than a confession that Jesus is "Lord and God".
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Re: John 20:28, My Lord and My God
It's amazing how much drivel gets written about what is in Scripture about Jesus. Look at this misleading NPR headline and article: http://www.npr.org/2014/04/07/300246095 ... become-one - and so the same ridiculous stuff keeps getting recycled! And the other issue is, people don't go to the source (Scripture!) to see what it actually says about Jesus, they just keep echoing garbage from websites and popular media.
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Re: John 20:28, My Lord and My God
The GOJ is the MOST Christological gospel.
There are EXPLICIT statements that Jesus is God.
To deny that is to deny what is written in the GOJ.
There are EXPLICIT statements that Jesus is God.
To deny that is to deny what is written in the GOJ.