Puritan Lad wrote:You are suggesting that if one (a former Christian) dies as a Muslim, they are saved. That is absolute nonsense, and a total lie. I pray that no former Christian turned Muslim is led astray by your sloppy nonsense. You may have blood on your hands.
Let's not make blanket assertions, PL. Now, this is obviously rooted in your belief in the Final Perseverance of the Saints, which I soundly reject. I gave up that notion years ago. Of course, I never held the belief in Total Depravity, and thus Unconditonal Election->Limited Atonement that you do, either. For me, Perseverance was purely a theological issue. For you, there is a logical foundation at stake.
Puritan Lad wrote:Where does your faith come from Jac? Is it something meritorious that you concocted of your own resources, your small contribution to your salvation? If so, then you have a right to boast. You were able to come up with this faith all by yourself, whereas your unbelieving neighbor wasn't skilled enough to pull this off, since “not all have faith” (2 Thessalonians 3:2). If not, then where did it come from? The ability to believe is itself granted to us by God. (Philippians 1:29). The Bible is clear that our flesh profits nothing; that a man must be born of the Spirit BEFORE he can even see the kingdom of God, let alone enter it. (John 3:3)
Faith is inherent to man. We all have faith. The question is where we place it. It is NOT a gift of God to be able to believe. I reject the notion that God grants us the gift of faith. To say that by placing my faith in Christ I have earned my faith is directly contrary to Scripture. Throughout Paul's letters, he constantly sets faith against works. Does this need to be proven, PL? Then does it not follow that faith is not a work? If we work for salvation, then salvation is earned. But, we do not earn it, thus it must be without works. However, for Paul, faith is not a work. Thus, to place our faith in God is not earning our salvation.
Looking up 2 Thess. 3:2, I suppose that you are reading this in the absolute sense. Not everyone has faith because God not given it to them? What's the context, PL? Paul is talking about being delivered from evil people. Why? Because evil people don't have faith. Who do they not have faith in? Jesus Christ. So Paul is saying that not everyone has faith in Christ, and as a result of that, he and his friends will be persecuted. Because of that, he requested prayer. That's a plain reading, PL.
Looking at Phil. 1:29, keep the main thing the main thing. The main thrust of that passage is that it has been granted to the Philipians to suffer for Christ. That is an honor. It is a blessing. Furthermore, it's meritorious. The honor of suffering comes from standing firm (v. 27). Now, take that same idea and apply it to "believe in Him." How is believing meritorious? I already covered this. All men are drawn by the Spirit. They are first drawn by natural revelation, and then by special revelation. To the extent that they respond, they are granted more revelation until God opens their heart so that they are
able to believe. At that point, they choose whether or not to believe. Before, they were not capable, but because they followed the drawing, they were granted the ability to believe. That is, God removed from them the spiritual blinders. That does NOT mean that He made them to believe. See Acts 10; 16:13-15.
Looking at John 3, Jesus makes the categorical statement that to see the Kingdom of Heaven, one must be born again. How is one born again? By belief (3:16). There is nothing here about faith being granted as a gift. None of us have seen the Kingdom yet. We won't until Christ returns.
Puritan Lad wrote:I have also dealt with the verses that command belief, Jac. I've made it clear that permission and ability are two different things. All men MAY come, but no man CAN come. I can give you permission to flap your arms and fly to the moon. Does that mean that you have the ability to do it? God gave Pharoah a commandment, and then proceeded to harden his heart, that he would not obey it. More on that later.
You'll have to direct me to the posts where you have handled those passages. I've not seen them in our discussions. I've seen very little exegesis from you, PL.
As for your May/Can paradigm, I call rubbish. Suppose you give me permission to flap my arms and fly to the moon. Fine. No big deal. But, suppose you give me the COMMAND to do so, and if I don't, then I am punished for it. Well, now we are in a totally different ballpark. And let's take it even further. Suppose in some strange world you are capable of giving me the ability to flap my arms and fly to the moon. And yet, you refuse to give me that ability. If you command me to do so, it is you who are at fault, not me.
Puritan Lad wrote:I have thoroughly refuted your arguments with scripture, but you refuse to listen. What you call “exegesis” is really just trying to “explain away”. For example, in your irresponsible dealings with Rev. 20:11-15, you claim that, “a person's sins are never mentioned in this passage. What is a man condemned for? Is it his sin? By God, I say no. A person is condemned for not being found in the Book of Life. This means that he is dead in his sins. You see, he is not condemned for his sins, but for his death—that is, for his lack of life”. You claim this despite the fact that this passage clearly states that they are "judged according to their works (sin)". You also ignore the clear teaching that it is SIN that causes us to be blotted out of the Book of Life (Exodus 32:33).
You have a strange definition of "explain away." In every passage you've presented, I've offered a simple exegesis that actually teaches a positive lesson. To my knowledge, I've shown what I see the passages in question to actually mean . . . not just what they don't mean. The latter would be explaining away. If I've missed offering the explanation of the actual meaning of any passages, feel free to give me a list.
As for Rev. 20:11-15 . . . what is that you said about repeating a lie long enough and loud enough? I've already shown in detail why your position doesn't work. Now, your problem is that you equate "works" with "sins." But, PL, that's NOT WHAT THE PASSAGE SAYS. Can you find me a manuscript that reads
hamartia there and not
ergon? Works may or may not be sins.
Now, for those who aren't familiar, there are two possible understandings of this passage. The first is that the works in this passage are used to determine the level of one's punishment. My theology professor holds this view, although he admits it is more for emotional reasons. He just can't see God letting the little old lady who was really nice but just never accepted to gospel suffer as much as Hitler. I appreciate the sentiment, but I reject it in favor of the second view.
The second possibility, which I hold, is that God is being a perfectly fair judge, as per Rom. 2:5-7, which the NIV renders as follows:
- But because of your stubbornness and your unrepentant heart, you are storing up wrath against yourself for the day of God's wrath, when his righteous judgment will be revealed. God "will give to each person according to what he has done." To those who by persistence in doing good seek glory, honor and immortality, he will give eternal life.
I take this to mean exactly what Paul is saying. If a person persists in doing good and seeking glory and honor, he will be granted eternal life. Keep in mind, up to this point, Paul has not yet presented the gospel of faith in Christ! He has been focusing on the sinfulness of man. By their own works they will show themselves condemned.
So, God is going to offer these people a fair trial. They are going to come forward and offer their best defense. Their good has outweighed their bad. So, the books will be opened. Their evidence will be honestly evaluated. Have they persisted in seeking glory and doing good? The answer will be no. So, God will look to see if their name is in the Book of Life. If it isn't there, they will be condemned, because they will be dead in their sins.
The condemnation, then, is for the state of spiritual deadness. This is the ultimate example of the concept of sowing and reaping. A dead person cannot be in the presence of a living and holy God forever, so they must be assigned the place of the dead . . . in this case, the Lake of Fire.
Now, it may be that their works will also play a part in the level of their torment. But, I'd rather not go that far, only because the text doesn't say so. I personally doubt it on other grounds. Remember, in my view, ALL sin has been paid for. I'm just reading the text straight forward, PL. It doesn't say people are condemned for their sins. It doesn't say they are condemned for their works. It says they are judged by them. It says they are condemned for not being in the Book of Life. How do you get there? By being alive. How do you become alive? By being born again. how do you get born again? By believing in Christ alone for your salvation. QED.
Puritan Lad wrote:You claim that “I do not hold that Christ's work on the cross was to save everyone, but to make atonement for all sin.” Christ work on the cross was to “secure eternal redemption” (Hebrews 9:12). For whom did He do this? HIS People. He came to “save HIS people from their sins” (Matthew 1:21).
I've already handled Hebrews 9:12, just as I already handled Rev. 20:11-15. See, this is what I got on to you before about, PL. You can't ignore an argument. If you don't like my exegesis, point out the flaws. Don't pretend I never dealt with your arguments. That's your game, not mine.
Puritan Lad wrote:If Christ atoned for ALL sin, then how can those in Revelation 20 be judged according to their works? On what basis does anyone to Hell? As Charles Spurgeon correctly observed, "He has punished Christ, why should He punish twice for one offence? Christ has died for all His people's sins, and if thou art in the covenant, thou art one of Christ's people. Damned thou canst not be. Suffer for thy sins thou canst not. Until God can be unjust, and demand two payments for one debt, He cannot destroy the soul for whom Jesus died."
Hopefully my above exegesis should explainn how a person can be judged for their works, even if sin is atoned for. Note that I reject the view that torment is increased for increasing sin . . . at least, I do on those grounds. There are other grounds on which I may be inclined to accept it . . . that's an issue I still have to think through.
Anyway, I just refer you to the above exegesis.
Puritan Lad wrote:Think about it Jac. According to you, Hell is full of souls who were just as much bought with the blood of Christ as you and I. That is just not acceptable.
No, sir, it isn't. Hell is full of people who sins are not held against them, yes. But we are bought the moment we are elected. That required the shedding of blood--Christ's, do be exact--thus, we were bought by His blood. We were redeemed. But those who rejected the free gift of grace have not been bought.
I don't think you really understand how important election is in my view of salvation, PL . . . good for me it's the next idea you pick up on.
Puritan Lad wrote:You theology of “election” is also nonsense. In fact, by definition, it isn't election. It is ratification. In your view, God doesn't really elect anyone, He just ratifies their choice. You write, “What does that mean, “elected in Christ”? “In Christ” refers to location or position. If I said, “I was chosen in the house,” or “He was chosen in the field,” we would not think that I was chosen to be in the house or chosen to be in the field. The implication is that, while in the house, I was chosen, or while in the field, he was chosen. Thus, we see that God looks at those “in Christ” and He chooses them. Which ones does He choose? ALL of them!”. Again, this is not election, it is ratification. According to you, people choose to be “in Christ”, and Jesus comes along and puts His stamp of approval on their choice. This is unscriptural. No one can choose to be “in Christ” unless it has been granted to him by the Father (John 6:65). “But of Him you are in Christ Jesus…” (1 Corinthians 1:30). What is really amusing is that you call this “unconditional” election. It couldn't be more conditional. In order to be “elected”, according to you, you must choose to be “in Christ”. This is a condition (as well as a work).
No, you've misrepresented my view. What you are saying is logically impossible. Follow this VERY closely with me . . . slow down your reading here:
Christ cannot have stamped his seal of approval on our belief, thus electing us, simply because our belief was subsequent to election. Election is a PRETEMPORAL event. Thus, it is NOT based on our belief. It is a logical impossibility to base something on something that has not happened.
Now, as I have already explained, God chose before the foundations of the world certain people, and these people are saved. You see, PL, being in Christ does NOT save. God chose to save those in Christ. Let me say that again:
Being in Christ does not save. God chose to save those in Christ.
How do we get "in Christ"? By being born again. How are we born again? By belief. So, your entire argument against my position is moot. Try again.
Puritan Lad wrote:You wrote “no where in Scripture do we find the doctrine that regeneration precedes faith”. The Scripture clearly says so, as I quoted in 1 John 5:1, “...everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God”. This clearly places belief AFTER the new birth, and anyone who can read can see this, despite your naysaying. If you believe in Christ, you have already been born of God. Furthermore, those who are born again have been “born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.” (John 1:13). Could this scripture be any clearer?
No, sir, it does not "clearly" say so. Why do you insert the word "already"? Do you know there is a word in Greek for "already"? If what you are saying is true, shouldn't John have used it?
But, let's get a bit more technical, shall we? First off, what translation are you using? "Has been born" is very different in meaning from "is born." The former is a perfect tense, while the latter is a present tense. Every major translation that I looked up . . . the NASB, KJV, NKJV, NIV, and ESV all render this a simple present. The word here is definitely in the perfect tense . . . anyway. That bothers me, because that seems like a pretty simple translation. If ALL the major translations are going with that, though, there is probably something I don't know.
Actually, before I go and lay out the argument I had planned, let me talk to my Greek professor. I don't want to explain away a text. I know what I think it means, but I want to confirm it. Believe it or not, I don't know everything
.
Moving on:
As for John 1:13, my post on election above should clear that up as well.
Puritan Lad wrote:Now, if you please, quit stalling and deal with Romans 9:10-24. All of the 5 points of Calvinism are clearly taught in this passage, as well as your objection that “Calvinism slanders God”.
LOL. Seriously, thanks for the laugh. Seriously . . . how many of my arguments have you failed to answer? Over and over and over again . . .
Besides, I have absolutely no problem with Rom. 9 at all. Do you really think there is a "gotcha" in there I haven't thought about, PL? Seriously. As common as the position is, do you think I've not already considered it? If and when I get around to exegeting that passage, I'll do it properly. I have other things to work on that that particular passage. And, again, you haven't answered hardly anything I've thrown your way. How about the regeneration coming through faith, as proved previously? How about the responsiveness of the spirituall dead? How about the exegesis of the "all" verses that you just covered with a blanket statement that ignored my arguments? How about in this very thread, about the rejection of the OFFER of salvation?
You start answering arguments, PL. I've been doing that for you since day one.
And, I've already dealt with what it means to "inherit the Kingdom," so we've covered the last verse you mentioned as well.
Anything else you'd like me to answer?