Forgiving or not forgiving sins

[FFC]

Can someone explain this verse to me? I thought only God had the power to forgive sins. What kind of forgiveness are we talking about here that requires the power of the Holy Spirit? Are the Catholics on to something here with priests and confession?

John 20:21-23
Again Jesus said, "Peace be with you! As the Father has sent me, I am sending you." And with that he breathed on them and said, "Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive anyone his sins, they are forgiven; if you do not forgive them, they are not forgiven."

[Turgonian]

Remember that only God can forgive sins.

However, it seems that the disciples did receive authority to forgive sins in God's Name. That doesn't mean that priests of today have the same authority. If I recall correctly, touching the shadow of Paul could heal sick people. Try the same thing with a devout modern-day church official, and chances are it won't work.

[In God We Trust]

Indeed, only God can forgive sins.

James 5:15-16 (emphasis by me)
[15] And the prayer offered in faith will make them well; the Lord will raise them up. If they have sinned, they will be forgiven. [16] Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each other so that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous person is powerful and effective.

So, what can we say, that it is God doing the forgiving from within the person? Doesn't God work through people? Weren't the disciples made holy, or righteous, when Jesus breathed on them?

I could just be babbling, here, though.

[Byblos]

Indeed, only God can forgive sins.

James 5:15-16 (emphasis by me)
[15] And the prayer offered in faith will make them well; the Lord will raise them up. If they have sinned, they will be forgiven. [16] Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each other so that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous person is powerful and effective.

So, what can we say, that it is God doing the forgiving from within the person? Doesn't God work through people? Weren't the disciples made holy, or righteous, when Jesus breathed on them?

I could just be babbling, here, though.

You're not babbling. That's how I, as a Catholic, see it as well. No one is able to absolve us of our sins other than God. Whether it's done directly or through the intercession of a priest (by the power of God) or the help (prayer) of a family member or friend is rather irrelevant.

[Jac3510]

Check out the NASB's rendering, FFC - "their sins have been forgiven them." The word in Greek is in the perfect tense, which is past (completed) action with present results. Jesus is telling the apostles that they have the authority to declare a person's sins forgiven - not to forgive them in and of themselves. This is similar to the "binding/loosing" argument Protestants and Catholics have had for ages ("Whatever you bind on earth will be/has been bound in heaven").

For the record, this understanding fits the immediate context as well. Jesus is sending them out with His message of reconciliation. What happens (especially in John) when a person believes? They receive everlasting life and are forgiven of their sins. Grammar + context . . . a hard duo to top

[Byblos]

Check out the NASB's rendering, FFC - "their sins have been forgiven them." The word in Greek is in the perfect tense, which is past (completed) action with present results. Jesus is telling the apostles that they have the authority to declare a person's sins forgiven - not to forgive them in and of themselves. This is similar to the "binding/loosing" argument Protestants and Catholics have had for ages ("Whatever you bind on earth will be/has been bound in heaven").

For the record, this understanding fits the immediate context as well. Jesus is sending them out with His message of reconciliation. What happens (especially in John) when a person believes? They receive everlasting life and are forgiven of their sins. Grammar + context . . . a hard duo to top

Which agrees totally with what I said (at least that's the way I see it). The apostles (and catholics believe their successors, the bishops, including the pope, and their hierarchical descendents) have been granted the authority to declare sins as forgiven, and not to forgive sins. We confess our sins to one another (to a priest) who declares our sins forgiven (by the authority granted to him). Is it necessary? Perhaps not. Can we confess our sins to God directly? Of course. Then why do we do it? It promotes community prayer and a sense of family.

[FFC]

Check out the NASB's rendering, FFC - "their sins have been forgiven them." The word in Greek is in the perfect tense, which is past (completed) action with present results. Jesus is telling the apostles that they have the authority to declare a person's sins forgiven - not to forgive them in and of themselves. This is similar to the "binding/loosing" argument Protestants and Catholics have had for ages ("Whatever you bind on earth will be/has been bound in heaven").

For the record, this understanding fits the immediate context as well. Jesus is sending them out with His message of reconciliation. What happens (especially in John) when a person believes? They receive everlasting life and are forgiven of their sins. Grammar + context . . . a hard duo to top

Thanks Jac. So in a sense we all have the ability to declare someone's sins forgiven or not based on their response to our presentation of the the gospel message? But this is not the same kind of forgiving of sins that Christ did, correct?

[FFC]

Can we confess our sins to God directly? Of course. Then why do we do it? It promotes community prayer and a sense of family.

I agree, Byblos. It is the same idea of "confessing our sins one to another". I think this is a very healthy practice considering our prideful attitudes sometimes.