Sargon wrote:1) We are discussing the origin of the names in the Book of Mormon. You contend that Smith took the names from the bible, while not providing any evidence except for your conclusion that the plates could not have been the origin based on the eye witness accounts.
That's not actually an accurate presentation of my case, This has been my case:
* There is no evidence that the text of the Book of Mormon was translated from the plates
* The reasons for this are:
(a) There is no evidence for the existence of the plates
(b) There is no evidence that the plates contained the information in the Book of Mormon
(c) There is no evidence that whatever was on the plates was translated by Smith
(d) There is evidence contrary to the claim that Smith translated the plates:
(i) Most witnesses describe the plates as completely absent during Smith's writing of the Book of Mormon, or else as not being viewed by him during the writing of the Book of Mormon
(ii) Even witnesses recording Smith's alleged interaction with the plates describe a process which is not translation
* There are alternative sources to the plates which contain a significant amount of the information in the Book of Mormon, constituting either identical or near identical material (local
geography,
over 200 names and a
considerable amount of text from the
KJV Bible, plus text from the
Spaulding Manuscript the
View Of The Hebrews, and possibly
others), which has been acknowledged and documented by General Authority
BH Roberts.
* It can be demonstrated that these alternative sources exist, and the information in them was available to Smith, which cannot be said for the plates
That is my case. The fact is that we have no evidence whatever that the material in the Book of Mormon was taken from the plates by any means, still less by translation (and much evidence against a translation process). We must therefore look for another source. There are a number of sources (already mentioned), in which a signfiicant amount of the materal in the Book of Mormon can be found.
The case that the material in the Book of Mormon was taken from these sources is therefore considerably more credible than the case that the material was translated from the plates.
2) You continue to contend that the plates were not present, so they weren't the source. You also contend that even were the plates present, they were not the source of the names because you believe that since Joseph did not directly read the plates during translation the names could not have come from them.
Well I was reading the witnesses you gave me, and all I can say that if I am charitable and trust what they say, then I have to believe that they are telling me that the plates weren't present, or weren't even viewed by Smith when they were. Should I believe them or not?
You're in a bind here, because if you tell me not to believe them then you're left with the question of why I should believe any Mormon witnesses. But if you tell me I should belive them, then you have to acknowledge that most of the witnesses to the writing of the Book of Mormon insist that the plates were not present, or weren't even viewed by Smith when they were.
A) Your theory that Smith took the names from the bible has absolutely no evidence, a problem which you have yet to deal with. In fact, there is evidence that argues precisely against your hypothesis. Your hypothesis stands solely on your conclusion that the plates were not the source.
As I have shown (and shown repeatedly), my case has plenty of evidence. It has both negative evidence and positive evidence. The negative evidence is that there is no evidence that the information in the Book of Mormon was taken from the plates. The positive evidence is that so much of the material in the Book of Mormon can be found in sources other than the plates. That is evidence. That is not hypothesis.
I have to remember that I'm speaking with someone who believes that the finding of an inscription in the Middle East reading 'NHM' is credible evidence that a certain place called 'Nahom' mentioned in the Book of Mormon is a genuine geographical site located where the Book of Mormon claims.
B) The plates were sometimes present, and sometimes not. There are accounts of them being present, and accounts of them not being present. While you conclude that the eye witness accounts are unreliable because of this fact, you fail to consider that Joseph translated the plates in different places, by different methods, and using different scribes.
I can conclude either that the accounts are not reliable (because they contradict each other), or I can conclude that the 'translation' process took place at different times, in different places, using different scribes, and by different methods.
Alternatively, I could accept both, which I most certainly do. The problem is that a number of the witness accounts sound like they are describing the entire process of 'translation', not merely one incident of many (Cowdrey claims he wrote the entire Book of Mormon 'save a few pages', as it was translated through the 'Urim' and 'Thummim' by Smith, Journal of Reuben Miller 21 October 1848, in Richard Anderson, "'By the Gift and Power of God," Ensign 7:9 (1977), 80). This would mean that some of the accounts contradict each other.
But even granting that the writing of the Book of Mormon was written over time, in different places, using different scribes (which I certainly believe), and even granting that the 'translation' method was different each time (which I most certainly do not believe, because there is no evidence for a translation process), I am left with the fact that the vast majority of accounts, covering the vast majority of the 'translation' sessions, record very plainly the fact that the plates were not used in the 'translation' process, and that often they weren't even present.
Also, you conclude that because Joseph used the urim and thummim in his dictation of the BoM, the text did not come from the plates.
No, I have not made any such conclusion. In fact I haven't even mentioned the 'Urim' and 'Thummim'. I have referred specifically to the seerstone. By the way, I hope you're aware of the confusion among Mormon apologists regarding the identity and use of the 'Urim' and 'Thummim' and the seerstone.
In your opinion he clearly could not have translated anything without having opened the book of plates and directly translating them using his own intellect. You provide no explanation for why this is the only acceptable method of translation.
That is not what I have said. What I have said is that none of the witnesses you gave me described a translation process. I am not claiming that Smith had to use his own intellect. I could happily grant Smith a Divinely bestowed gift of translation. But there is no evidence that an actual translation process took place.
A translation process requires the reading of one language and the transmission of its meaning into a different language. Now Smith had no knowledge of the language on the plates, and therefore couldn't read it. In order for a translation process to have taken place, he would have had to have been able to read the text. If he had been granted a Divinely bestowed knowledge of the language on the plates, and then transmitted the meaning of that text into English using this gift, that would have been translation.
But that is not what your witnesses say. On the contrary, they give us a variety of different accounts:
* Smith, using the seerstone, saw the 'Reformed Egyptian' (which he could not read), and the English underneath it, and dictated the English
* Smith, using the seerstone, saw simply the English (not the 'Reformed Egyptian'), and dictated the English
* Smith, using the 'Urim' and 'Thummim' like spectacles, looked directly at the 'Reformed Egyptian' on the plates, and instead of seeing the 'Reformed Egyptian' actually saw English
None of these, not even the last, is a description of translation, by your own definition.
According to our eye witnesses, he did in fact recieve revelation through the urim and thummim, and this revelation was a translation of the gold plates.
No, this is where it breaks down. The 'eye witnesses' didn't actually
see a 'translation' process. They wrote down words which Smith spoke. The 'translation' process (if any), was not actually visible.
For example:
* They couldn't see in the hat, so they had no way of verifying if anything was being shown on the seerstone
* They couldn't use the 'Urim' and 'Thummim', so they had no way of verifying if it actually made the 'Reformed Egyptian' characters turn into English when used
* They couldn't read 'Reformed Egyptian', so they had no way of verifying if what was on the plates was being translated into English
* Most of them didn't even see the plates present during the 'translation' process
What they saw was Smith sitting and staring into a hat with a stone in it (most witnesses), or looking at plates with the 'Urim' and 'Thummim' used like spectacles (Cowdrey). In fact FARMS Mormon apologist Stephen Ricks makes the point that the accounts of Harris and Whitmer are not reliable ('However, several things argue against their explanation of the translation process',
source).
Through Joseph's faith he was able to translate the Book of Mormon by revelation, without needing to learn an unknown tongue. Is this translation?? Perhaps not to you. But to me translation is to take the words of one language and change them into the words of another language.
Yes, to me, translation is to take the words of one language and change them into the words of another. But there is no evidence that Smith did this. Most of the witnesses say that what was revealed to him was
English, which means that no translation took place. This is revelation, not translation. If God shows me a book written in English, and I read it aloud, I am not translating anything. I'm reading English.
That is exactly what Joseph Smith did, via the urim and thummim.
Not only is that not what Smith did, but (as you should know), even FARMS apologists are
uncertain as to exactly what the alleged 'translation' process was, and cannot come to an agreement on it. In fact they cannot even agree that it can be described as 'translation'.
Joseph was taking information from the plates, and translating it. This was done via the urim and thummim.
Evidence please.
You assume that because he did not physically read the plates, he could not have taken information from them.
No, I am saying that unless there is any evidence that he was taking the information from the plates, you cannot assert that he was taking the information from the plates. The fact that the plates were entirely unnecessary to the process of writing the Book of Mormon shows that the information was not being taken from the plates - it was being supplied by direct revelation (the FARMS article by Stephen Ricks attempts to address this by basically discounting all the witness accounts which describe such a process).
Are you argueing that because Joseph used a medium that you don't understand, the information could not have come from the plates?
No.
What keeps the information from having come from the plates?
The fact that there is no evidence that the plates were necessary for the translation, and the eye witness accounts which claim that the information came from the seerstone, not the plates.
I agree. But when the words are translated into english by the power of God, and then read and dictated, that is translation, reading and dictation.
But the accounts say that Smith read
English, which means that whatever he saw
did not require translation. If you claim that the English he saw came from God, but that the plates were still being translated, then the only person left who can legitimately be called a translater would be God Himself, who would be reading the plates, translating them into English, and showing Smith the English.
This is absurd, because God would hardly have to read the plates Himself. The problem is that the eye witness accounts unfortunately demonstrate that the plates were unnecessary to the process of writing the Book of Mormon, leaving them hanging around in the whole story without a purpose. Smith didn't need them, because he was shown English, which he read. God didn't need them, because He didn't need to read what He already knew. The plates then become redundant.
Remind me again why there was no translation process. I am not aware of there being any specific process by which translation has to be done in order to be considered translation.
I'm referring to this:
Sargon wrote:But to me translation is to take the words of one language and change them into the words of another language.
Your words.
What is clear from the eye witness accounts, is that Joseph recieved the information for the BoM from a source that was not the bible.
Well no, as I've shown the eye witnesses confirmed nothing like that. They simply confirm that they saw Smith looking into a hat, and talking to them. That tells us nothing about the source of Smith's words. If I look into a hat and start talking to you, claiming I'm 'translating' a text which you can't even see (let alone read), there is no evidence whatever that I am doing what I claim, and certainly no way you can say you saw me translating anything. You just saw me sitting with a hat, talking to you.