Acts 15, verse 21

[Christian2]

I'm having a conversation with a Muslim about Acts 15:21 and its meaning.

Every study bible I have ignores verse 21. What does it mean? What is James saying?

Acts 15:18 “Known to God from eternity are all His works.[c] 19 Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God, 20 but that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality,[d]from things strangled, and from blood. 21 For Moses has had throughout many generations those who preach him in every city, being read in the synagogues every Sabbath.” (NKJV)

Is he saying that the Gentiles should obey the Torah?

If so, why does he only mention the items in verse 20?

Where did James, a Jew, get the authority to determine what laws the Gentiles should follow?

Thanks.

[bizzt]

I'm having a conversation with a Muslim about Acts 15:21 and its meaning.

Every study bible I have ignores verse 21. What does it mean? What is James saying?

Acts 15:18 “Known to God from eternity are all His works.[c] 19 Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God, 20 but that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality,[d]from things strangled, and from blood. 21 For Moses has had throughout many generations those who preach him in every city, being read in the synagogues every Sabbath.” (NKJV)

Is he saying that the Gentiles should obey the Torah?

If so, why does he only mention the items in verse 20?

Where did James, a Jew, get the authority to determine what laws the Gentiles should follow?

Thanks.

This might Help

From Barnes

Act 15:21 -
For Moses - The meaning of this verse is, that the Law of Moses, prohibiting these things, was read in the synagogues constantly. As these commands wore constantly read, and as the Jewish converts would not soon learn that their ceremonial law had ceased to be binding, it was deemed to be a matter of expediency that no needless offence should be given to them. For the sake of peace, it was better that they should abstain from meat offered to idols than to give offence to the Jewish converts. Compare 1Co_8:10-13.Of old time - Greek: from ancient generations. It is an established custom, and therefore his laws are well known, and have, in their view, not only the authority of revelation, but the venerableness of antiquity.
In every city - Where there were Jews. This was the case in all the cities to which the discussion here had reference.
Them that preach him - That is, by reading the Law of Moses. But, in addition to reading the Law, it was customary also to offer an explanation of its meaning. See the notes on Luk_4:16-22.

[Christian2]

I'm having a conversation with a Muslim about Acts 15:21 and its meaning.

Every study bible I have ignores verse 21. What does it mean? What is James saying?

Acts 15:18 “Known to God from eternity are all His works.[c] 19 Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God, 20 but that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality,[d]from things strangled, and from blood. 21 For Moses has had throughout many generations those who preach him in every city, being read in the synagogues every Sabbath.” (NKJV)

Is he saying that the Gentiles should obey the Torah?

If so, why does he only mention the items in verse 20?

Where did James, a Jew, get the authority to determine what laws the Gentiles should follow?

Thanks.

This might Help

From Barnes

Act 15:21 -
For Moses - The meaning of this verse is, that the Law of Moses, prohibiting these things, was read in the synagogues constantly. As these commands wore constantly read, and as the Jewish converts would not soon learn that their ceremonial law had ceased to be binding, it was deemed to be a matter of expediency that no needless offence should be given to them. For the sake of peace, it was better that they should abstain from meat offered to idols than to give offence to the Jewish converts. Compare 1Co_8:10-13.Of old time - Greek: from ancient generations. It is an established custom, and therefore his laws are well known, and have, in their view, not only the authority of revelation, but the venerableness of antiquity.
In every city - Where there were Jews. This was the case in all the cities to which the discussion here had reference.
Them that preach him - That is, by reading the Law of Moses. But, in addition to reading the Law, it was customary also to offer an explanation of its meaning. See the notes on Luk_4:16-22.

Thanks bizzt,

Can you provide a link. I wouldn't mind reading the notes mentioned.

Thank you.

The Muslim believes that James only mentioned a few things but the Gentiles were to follow all of the law and he thinks that is what verse 21 is saying.

[bizzt]

Sorry it is in my E-sword Bible. I downloaded the Barnes Commentary for it

[Kurieuo]

I'm having a conversation with a Muslim about Acts 15:21 and its meaning.

Every study bible I have ignores verse 21. What does it mean? What is James saying?

Acts 15:18 “Known to God from eternity are all His works.[c] 19 Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God, 20 but that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality,[d]from things strangled, and from blood. 21 For Moses has had throughout many generations those who preach him in every city, being read in the synagogues every Sabbath.” (NKJV)

Is he saying that the Gentiles should obey the Torah?

The whole context of this chapter is to set boundaries for the conduct of Gentile Christians as a dispute had arisen about whether they ought to keep Jewish practices (circumcision). Peter's words in verses 6-11 clarify it is not by the old covenant (the Law) that one is saved, but rather the new covenant of grace found in Christ (passages elsewhere sheds further light on the new and old covenants). It seems to me that Peter does not want to burden Gentile Christians with his own Jewish cultural rituals and beliefs which are now irrelevant since both are only saved because of Christ.

Where did James, a Jew, get the authority to determine what laws the Gentiles should follow?

The whole scene presented is one of a discussion regarding the topic of how Gentiles should conduct themselves, and whether their being saved in based upon their conduct. Peter deals with the issue of how one is saved, and James focuses on the issue of how Gentile Christians should conduct themselves. James is clear that it is his judgement (perspective) of the issue (v.19). Yet, it obviously was accepted by all in verses 22 on.

My understanding of what is going on with James is that he is attempting to clarify what is good conduct for Gentiles who have accepted Christ. His reasoning seems to be that Gentile Christians ought to keep away from practices which are at odds with their own beliefs, albeit some standards of conduct are still shared between Gentile and Jewish Christians. I believe James' reasoning identifies the influence of the preaching of Moses (Pentateuch) in every city, as being reason for the familiarity of Gentile Christians with what God desires. Thus, Gentile Christians should remain consistent with what God desires if they are saved by Christ and desire to follow after Him. Interestingly, James only singles out any practices associated with the worship of idols or other "gods" as being proper for Gentiles to also abstain from (e.g., sexual immorality often practised in pagan rituals, strangling of animals and drinking of blood). Which makes sense in my opinion.

[Christian2]

Sorry it is in my E-sword Bible. I downloaded the Barnes Commentary for it

I have E-sword online, but keep forgetting it is there. I should learn how to use it. LOL

Thanks.

[Christian2]

I'm having a conversation with a Muslim about Acts 15:21 and its meaning.

Every study bible I have ignores verse 21. What does it mean? What is James saying?

Acts 15:18 “Known to God from eternity are all His works.[c] 19 Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God, 20 but that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality,[d]from things strangled, and from blood. 21 For Moses has had throughout many generations those who preach him in every city, being read in the synagogues every Sabbath.” (NKJV)

Is he saying that the Gentiles should obey the Torah?

The whole context of this chapter is to set boundaries for the conduct of Gentile Christians as a dispute had arisen about whether they ought to keep Jewish practices (circumcision). Peter's words in verses 6-11 clarify it is not by the old covenant (the Law) that one is saved, but rather the new covenant of grace found in Christ (passages elsewhere sheds further light on the new and old covenants). It seems to me that Peter does not want to burden Gentile Christians with his own Jewish cultural rituals and beliefs which are now irrelevant since both are only saved because of Christ.

Where did James, a Jew, get the authority to determine what laws the Gentiles should follow?

The whole scene presented is one of a discussion regarding the topic of how Gentiles should conduct themselves, and whether their being saved in based upon their conduct. Peter deals with the issue of how one is saved, and James focuses on the issue of how Gentile Christians should conduct themselves. James is clear that it is his judgement (perspective) of the issue (v.19). Yet, it obviously was accepted by all in verses 22 on.

My understanding of what is going on with James is that he is attempting to clarify what is good conduct for Gentiles who have accepted Christ. His reasoning seems to be that Gentile Christians ought to keep away from practices which are at odds with their own beliefs, albeit some standards of conduct are still shared between Gentile and Jewish Christians. I believe James' reasoning identifies the influence of the preaching of Moses (Pentateuch) in every city, as being reason for the familiarity of Gentile Christians with what God desires. Thus, Gentile Christians should remain consistent with what God desires if they are saved by Christ and desire to follow after Him. Interestingly, James only singles out any practices associated with the worship of idols or other "gods" as being proper for Gentiles to also abstain from (e.g., sexual immorality often practised in pagan rituals, strangling of animals and drinking of blood). Which makes sense in my opinion.

Kurieuo, thanks for your post. I think I have it now.