More Trinity stuff

General discussions about Christianity including salvation, heaven and hell, Christian history and so on.

Must a person believe in the Trinity to be saved?

Yes
3
25%
No
9
75%
Undecided
0
No votes
 
Total votes: 12

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zoegirl
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by zoegirl »

Jac3510 wrote:Pieac - I am a Trinitarian. Fortigurn is not. Also, let me politely suggest not to preach at anyone. "Encouraging" someone to "leave the 99" is first of all terribly out of context (besides that, it is just wrong. Jesus never asked anyone to "leave the 99." That is just you reading something that isn't even close to being there), and second of all, the manner is mildly offensive. These discussions can get caustic enough purely by disagreement without throwing in that kind of condescending rhetoric. Regardless, if I get a chance to, I'll respond to your three points later. I'm not so interested in debating the validity of the Trinity in this thread . . . if it gets too far off the original topic, though, and becomes a free for all, it may not matter.

Zoe - I hope the last part of your post about this being an offensive topic was direct more to Pieac than myself. I certainly don't advocate not worshiping Jesus as part of the Trinity. Besides this, you said that you see Christ's divinity as a necessary part to meet the requirements of substitutionary atonement. May I ask what your basis is for seeing things that way?
Oh no, I was merely pointing out *my* feelings regarding discussing the topic. Not at you personally. I have a good grasp of what you and I agree on. (We may disagree on reformed theology :D but I understand you clearly enough here). I actually think it is a healthy disgust, again like somehting getting upset when someone uses His name in vain.

Ah, now let me preface this again by saying I have yet to go and brush up on things. THis is at this point my feeble memory. I guess from a judicial standpoint, Christ's humanity was satisfactory for paymen, it was His sinless nature that tmade HIm able to pay the cost. But maybe I am mixing up my terms.

Let me see if I can break this down...He was capable of paying for our sins (as you and I both agreed on this, He was able to meet the requirement) but there was also His willingness to pay for our sins, His love, HIs sacrifice.

It seems that if all God needed was a sinless man and He simply pointed to one and said "ok, you, you will pay for the sins of my people", it would point to a capability of paying but not of a willingness to pay. I have often heard the analogy of God and Christ as a judge who stepped down and paid the bailiff himself for the crime of the defendant (after going to traffic court, this analogy hits home more :D ). Now imagine the analogy but this time the Judge told someone in the courtroom to stand up and pay for the crime. See, this takes away from the love and sacrifice. The judge is certainly capably of paying but is unwilling to do so.

Now I know this is not what you are saying....you are saying it is


So Christ's humanity fulfilled the payment (and maybe this is all you are referring to, in which case I apologize, I have no doubt I many be forgotting all of the different terms) but Christ's divinity made it...oh what's the word I'm looking for...unique? special? powerful? meaningful? ...worthy of worship? oH I don't know if this makes it any clearer....


(And Pierac, I am not suggesting that we do lock the forum, please read my posts carefully, I said I understaood why the previous thread on this topic was locked....I wasn't even invovled in the discussion bu read up on FOrtigurn's arguments to educate myself on his views. If you go back and read it you will see why it was....the arguemnts went back and forth, there were no resolutions and things were getting quite heated. Despite your claims, we are all interested in the truth....blinding flash of the obvious here but we see the trinity as truth, and most of us do so because we have examined scripture [even if some of us, ahem, are fuzzy on it :) ] We haven't arbitrarily decided to believe this stuff because a certain page of the hymnal says so. Those that have posted here and on other threads have exmained scripture....ah, anyway, go back to the previous thread)

No, begotten is not the same word for created, it indicates from the same nature....

I'll let Rich provide a most comprehensive address on the topic
http://www.godandscience.org/discovery/chapter3.html
Pierac
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Pierac »

If the trinity is so blinding obvious then as of now, why do 66% on this forum believe the trinity is not necessary for salvation compared to the 16% that do? Please, no disrespect intended!
I am not here to change your views. I do however, want you to try and change mine. That goes for All of you on this forum! Jac3510 and zoegirl you are mistaken in my intent! You have no idea how I would love to believe as you do, then I would be accepted! Yet God has other plans! Why? I don't know?
Zoegirl quote: I actually think it is a healthy disgust, again like something getting upset when someone uses His name in vain.


Zoegirl, I love you and I want you to help me! You think I'm here to prove you wrong. You are so mistaken! I'm here for you to prove me wrong! My wife has told me that she will not follow me to where we are going! She made it clear to me for the last 6 months. So who can I turn to for answers?

All of you are mistaken if you think I'm trying to sell you any truth. All I want is from you is your truth!

The question is. How far down the rabbit hole are you willing to go? STOP, don't answer this yet! Yes, I thought I could handle it too! but I was WRONG!




Agency

The foundation of our Bible is the OT. It contains the first three-quarters of our Bible. It stands to reason that if we misunderstand this Hebrew foundation then we construct a system of error. The art of successful reading is generally to let the last quarter of a book agree with the first three-quarters. As the grand finale of the Bible, the NT agrees with and is consistent with its OT heritage. It might sound like an over-simplification to say that the Bible is a Hebrew book and must be approached through “Hebrew eyes;” however, it was written within the culture and thought-forms of the Middle East. In order to understand its message we must become familiar with the thought-forms, the idioms, the culture and the customs of those who lived in Biblical times. Every sincere reader of the Bible understands this. Doing it is the challenge.

H. N. Snaith in his book, “The Distinctive Ideas of the Old Testament,” writes “Christianity itself has tended to suffer from a translation out of the Prophets and into Plato.” (p161) “Our position is that the reinterpretation of Biblical theology in terms of the ideas of the Greek philosophers has been both a widespread throughout the centuries and everywhere destructive to the essence of the Christian faith.” (p187.). Snaith also makes this remark that if his “thesis” is correct:… “then neither Catholic nor Protestant theology is based on Biblical theology. In each case we have a denomination of Christian theology by Greek thought… We hold that there can be no right (theology) until we have come to a clear view of the distinctive ideas of both Old and New Testaments and their differences from the pagan ideas which have so largely dominated Christian thought.” (p188.).

With the passing of many centuries since Scriptures were written much of the original intent has been buried under the accretions of generations of human tradition, a lot of Bible confusion can be cleared up by understanding “The Principle of Agency.”

A common feature of the Hebrew Bible is the concept (some even call it the “law”) of Jewish agency. All Old Testament scholars and commentators recognize that in Jewish custom whenever a superior commissioned an agent to act on his behalf, the agent was regarded as the person himself. This is well expressed in the Encyclopedia of the Jewish religion.

Thus in Hebrew custom whenever an agent was sent to act for his master it was as though that lord himself was acting and speaking. An equivalent in our culture to the Jewish custom of agency would be one who is authorized to act as Power of Attorney, or more strongly one who is given Enduring Power of Attorney. Such an agent has virtually unlimited powers to act on behalf of the one who appointed him.

Let's look at one of the stories in the Old Testament with this new mindset. In the story of Moses and the burning bush in Exodus 3, “who” is it who appears to Moses and talked to him? My answer once was typical of the vast majority in the Church. Of course it was God himself, Yahweh, who spoke to Moses. After all, the text states that “'God' called to him from the midst of the bush and 'said', 'Moses, Moses!'” (v4).

Verse 6 is even more convincing when the same speaker says, “'I am' the 'God' of your father, 'the God' of Abraham, 'the God' of Isaac, and 'the God' of Jacob.' Then Moses hid his face, for he was afraid to look at 'God'.” Surely it was Jehovah God himself who appear to Moses and who personally spoke? But what do we make of verse 2 that prefaces this narrative by stating that “'the angel of the LORD' appeared” to Moses from the midst of the brush? Many scholars have declared this angel to be God himself, even the pre-existing Christ. They make much of the definitive article and point out that this was a particular angel not just any angel.
This is a fancy bit of footwork that disregards the Hebrew text as we shall see. If we turn to the New Testament's commentary on this incident, we will see how Hebrews understood their own Scriptures.

Let us now turn to answer our question: Who is it who appears to Moses and talks to him? The martyr Stephen was a man “filled with the Holy Spirit.” Let's listen to his commentary on the burning bush incident. He clearly states that it was “an angel who appeared to him in the wilderness of Mount Sinai, in the flame of a burning bush” (Acts 7:30) As Moses approached this phenomenon, “there came the voice of the Lord: I am the God of your father. The Lord said to him, 'Take off the sandals from your feet, for the place on which you are standing is holy ground. (31-33).

Quite clearly this is an example of agency. It is an angel who appears to Moses and it is the angel who speaks. But note that this angel evens speaks for God in the first person. The angel of the Lord says, “I am God.” The angel is distinguished from God yet identified with him. In Hebrew eyes, it is perfectly natural to consider the agent as the person himself. In Hebrew thought, homage given to God's agent or representative is homage ultimately given to God Himself.

Let's look at just one more example. In Acts 12, the apostle Peter is in jail about to be executed. But while he was asleep, “behold, an angel of the Lord suddenly appeared, and a light shone in the cell; and he struck Peter's side and roused him, saying, 'Get up quickly.' And his chains fell off his hands. And the angel said to him, 'Gird yourself and put on your sandals… and follow me'” (Acts 12:7-8). Peter thought he was dreaming. As he followed the angel past the guards, out through the iron gate which “opened for them by itself,” Peter “did not know what was being 'done by the “angel”' was real, but thought he was seeing a vision”(v.9).
Now the Church was meeting in a house and praying for Peter's release. Peter started banging on the house door and Rhoda, the servant girl went to open the door… Once Peter was eventually inside you can imagine the stir in that place. Peter motions with his hand for everyone to be quiet. He told them his incredible story. And what did he say? “He described to them how 'the LORD' had led him out of prison” (v.17).

So who really did get Peter out of jail? The angel or the Lord? The text says both did. But we know that the Lord sent the angel to do the actual work. To the Hebrew mind, it was really the Lord who rescued Peter.

There are many such OT examples. An agent of God is actually referred to as God, or the Lord himself. In Genesis 31:11-13 Jacobs said to his wives, “'The angel' of God 'said' to me in a dream…'I am the God' of Bethel.” Here is an angel speaking as though he was God Himself. He speaks in the first person: “I am the God of Bethel.” Jacob was comfortable with this concept of agency.

In the next chapter, Jacob wrestled with “a man” until dawn, but he says he had “seen God face to face” (Gen 32:24-30). So was at this time when God appear to Jacob as a man? Perhaps as some have suggested it was actually the Lord Jesus himself, as the second member of the triune God, who wrestled with Jacob.

Not at all according to Hosea 12:3-4 which says, “As a man he [Jacob] struggled with God; he struggled with “the angel” and overcame him. So the one who is called both “a man” and “God” in Genesis is identified as an angel in Hosea. This is a perfect example of Jewish agency where the agent is considered as the principal.

There is another instance of agency in Exodus 7. God tells Moses he will make him “God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron shall be your prophet” (Exodus 7:1). Moses is to stand before the king of Egypt with the full authority and backing of heaven itself. Then God says, By this you shall know that I am the LORD: behold, I will strike the water that is in the Nile with the staff that is in “My hand”, and it shall be turned to blood” (v.17). But observe carefully that just two verses later the LORD says to Moses, “Say to Aaron, take your staff and stretch out your hand over the waters of Egypt… that they may become blood” (v.19). God says He Himself will strike the waters with the staff in His own hand. Yet, it was Aaron's hand that actually held the rod. Aaron is standing as God's agent in the very place of God himself. There is identification of the agent with his Principle. In Biblical terms, Moses and Aaron are “God” (Heb. elohim) to Pharaoh!

Sometimes this concept of agency has caused the translators of our Bible difficulties. The Hebrew word for “God”(elohim) has a wide range of meanings. Depending on context, it can mean the Supreme Deity, or “a god” or “gods” or even “angels” or human “judges.” This difficulty is reflected in verses like Exodus 21:6

The KJV reads… “Then his master shall bring him unto the judges;”
The NIV reads… “then his master must take him before the judges.”
But
The NASB reads… “then his master shall bring him to God”
So too the RSV… “then his master shall bring him to God”

Clearly, because the judges of Israel represented God as His agents, they are called “God,” elohim. As the slave gave his vow before these representatives of God, he was in fact making a binding vow before Jehovah. The agents were as God.

Another example that we have time for in this brief overview, is in Judges 6:11-22. “The angel of the LORD came and sat under the oak tree while Gideon was threshing wheat”. As 'the angel of the LORD appeared to him,' he greeted Gideon with the words, “The LORD is with you, O valiant warrior.” We can hear Gideon's disbelief when he says to the angel, “Oh my lord, if the LORD is with us, why then has all this happened to us?” Now notice a change in the text at Judges 6:14: “And the LORD looked at him and said, 'Go in this your strength and deliver Israel from the hand of Midian. Have not I sent you?” At this point Gideon murmurs and throws up excuses as to why he could not rescue Israel from their enemies. “But the LORD said to him, 'Surely I will be with you, and you shall defeat Midian as one man.'” Notice how the angel who is speaking on God's behalf actually uses the first person personal pronoun. And the text clearly says that when the angel looked at Gideon it was God himself who looked at him: And the LORD looked at him.” Gideon is not confused regarding who he is looking at or who is speaking to him. For as “the angel of the LORD vanished from his site,” he exclaimed, “I have seen the angel of the LORD face-to-face.” (V.22). We know that the angel of the LORD is the agent and not literally God, because the Scriptures are absolutely clear that no one has ever seen God himself (John 1:18; 1 Tim 6:16; 1 John 4:12). Many scholars have failed to take this very Hebrew way of looking at things into account. They have literally identified the angel of the LORD with God Himself. All confusion is dissipated when we understand the Jewish law of agency: “a person's agent is regarded as the person himself.”

There is one last very clear OT example of Hebrew Principle of Agency. It comes from Deuteronomy 29. Moses summons all of Israel and says to them, "You have seen all that the Lord did before your eyes in the land of Egypt to Pharaoh and all his servants and all his land; the great trials which your eyes have seen, those great signs and wonders" (v.2-3).
Moses continues to recite for the people all that God has done for them. But notice that in verse 6, while still reciting all God's wonders, Moses suddenly changes to the first person and says, "You have not eaten bread, nor have you drunk wine or strong drink, in order that you might know that I am the LORD your God." It is obvious that God himself is not personally speaking to the people. Moses is preaching. But Moses as the agent of God can speak as though he is the Lord himself. What is happening here? God is speaking through His man, His appointed representative. Therefore, he can move from speaking in the third person, “the LORD did this and that for you" to the first person: "I am the LORD your God doing this and that."

Knowing this principle helps us with other apparent difficulties, even seeming contradictions through the Scriptures. Lets look at one New Testament example. The story that has created a problem to many minds is the one concerning the healing of the Centurion's servant. In Matthew's account (Matt 8:5-13), it is the Centurion himself who comes to Jesus and begs him to heal his servant. The Centurion himself says, "Lord, my servant is lying paralyzed at home, suffering great pain" (v.6).

However, the parallel account in Luke (Luke 7:1-10) states that the Centurion did not personally go and speak to Jesus. He actually sent or commissioned as his agents “some Jewish elders.” These Jewish elders pleaded with Jesus on behalf of the Centurion saying, "He is worthy for you to grant this to him; for he loves our nation, and it was he who built us our synagogue" (v.4-5)
So who actually went to Jesus here? Did these gospel writers get confused? Are the detractors perhaps right to say that the Bible is full of errors and contradictions? Not at all! The difficulty is cleared up when we understand the Hebrew mind behind these Scriptures. The answer to who actually stood before Jesus is the elders. They had been sent by the Centurion. Matthew in typical Hebrew idiom has the Centurion himself there and speaking in the first person before Jesus. The agent is as the principal himself.

Jesus claimed to represent God like no other before or after him. He claimed to be the unique spokesman for God his Father and to speak the ultimate words of God. He claimed to act in total accord and harmony with God like no other. He claimed to be the Son of God, the Christ or Messiah, and the agent of the Father. The NT claims that he who sees Jesus sees the Father. He who hears Jesus the Son hears the words of God Himself.

The New Testament puts this theory about the angel of the Lord being Jesus in his preexistence to rest in Hebrews 1:
“God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son” (v 1-2).

So, the Son of God “did not speak” in the Old Testament days! Back in those days God spoke in various ways and only in “portions,” whether by vision or by prophet or by angel. It is only since Jesus Christ was brought into existence at birth and appeared “in these last days” that we have heard God speak “in his Son.” This is axiomatic. Jesus Christ was not God's messenger before his appearance as a man, born of Mary in history.

Oh yes there's more, much more. The question is are you willing to go down the rabbit hole?

Peace
Paul
Last edited by Pierac on Thu Aug 09, 2007 9:38 pm, edited 1 time in total.
Pierac
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Pierac »

Philosophy

I would like to take a look at how Greek philosophy has entered into our Biblical worldview. It is well known that many of our early Church fathers were deeply embedded in the study of Hellenistic philosophy. Robert Hatch, author of Possession and Persuasion: The Rhetoric of Christian Faith, states…“The story of how Greek philosophy, with its synthesis of rationalism and mysticism, rhetorically [i.e persuasively] penetrated and permeated the Christian tradition, forever altering Christian faith, is virtually an open secret insofar as it oozes out the pores of the literature of the Church history and theology. The open secret continues to be kept, no doubt, due to his its staggering implications.” Author Harold Ellens in his book The Ancient Library of Alexandria in early Christian Theological Development states, “The average Christian today is so unaware of this staggering fact that Christianity as we have today is a form of Greco-Roman mythology.”

N.H. Snaith in his book The Distinctive Ideas of the Old Testament explains, “The confusing of Greek ideas with the Hebrew heritage of the apostle in the Church began very early, as early as Clement of Alexandria [AD 150-215] and Origen [AD 185-254] and it rose from the fact that these scholars were Hellenists first and Christian second. It was furthered by the fact that all men until Jerome [AD 347-420] tended to read the Greek Bible as a Greek book, and with Hellenistic eyes… the result of this has been that from the very early stage, Christianity itself has tended to suffer from a translation out of the Prophets and into Plato.”

It is well known that the very early in the Church history there was no “Central Church.” Every region and local congregation could hold a variety of theologies and doctrines. There was no established “orthodoxy” that is, no basic theological system acknowledged by the majority. There were many competing voices. In some regions, what was to be termed “heresy” by others was in fact the original and only form of Christianity they had. The sense of a unified group advocating an apostolic doctrine accepted by the majority of Christians everywhere did not exist in the second and third centuries.

The evolving Christian Church did not develop in a vacuum. As always, "the world" seeped into the church. During the first few centuries, the whole Roman Empire was increasingly knit around the worship of Caesar. In the book Constantine versus Christwritten by Alistair Kee, senior lecturer in religious studies at the University of Glasgow, Kee establishes quite convincingly that Jesus in effect played no part what ever in the religion of Constantine. If he ignored Jesus, Constantine certainly acknowledged the principle of Messiahship. In fact, he did more than acknowledge it; he took on the role of the anointed one upon himself.
It seems probable, for instance, that Constantine converted to Christianity (in the early 4th century) for the very purpose of shoring up the support of Christians and of bringing stability to the crumbling empire he had inherited. As scholar Leonard Verduin points out:

When Constantine came into to the Church he did not check his imperial equipment at the door. No indeed, he came in with all the accounterments
that pertained in the secular regimen. He was not just a Roman who had learned to bow to the Christ; he had been pontifex maximus hitherto, the High
Priest of the Roman State Religion, and he entered the Church with the understanding that he would be pontifex maximus there to. And just as his
sword had flashed in defense of the old religion so would it now flash in defense of the new.


During the next few centuries, as an orthodox theology came to be crystallized, it was as much a product of imperial politics as it was a theological debate or Biblical exegesis.
The conclusions, reached by the authors of The Messianic Legacy, is that when the Church compromised with Constantine, the historical Jesus was officially destroyed, denied, and lost.
These conclusions are confirmed by the work of archaeologists. In the book Excavating Jesus: Beneath the Stones, Behind the Texts the authors, Crossan and Reed, indicate that the further the strata are removed from the first-century world of Jesus, the tendency is to decrease his Jewish identity. The other tendency is to increase his social status. In short, later archaeological layers commemorating Jesus' life tend to efface signs of his Jewishness…and replace them with features from Rome or Byzantium. On the other hand, the farther removed Jesus is from his first-century Galilean context, the more elite and regal he becomes.
Art work depicted from as early as the 1100's shows scenes from the lives of the apostles. The apostles look European and not Semitic. Their accessories appear medieval not ancient, and their cloths are regal not peasant.

It should not be surprising that the majority of church leaders were well educated from the finest schools that were deeply embedded in the study of Hellenistic philosophy.
One of the most revered of all “saints” who gave this new direction substance was Augustine of Hippo. Augustine's influence on modern Christianity is almost without parallel. With the rise to political power in the Roman church, it was Augustine who supplied the theological justification for compulsory measures taken by the state against Christian minorities. Anyone who disagreed with the Church party line was thought to be a heretic and labeled mad or insane. Churches that housed these free spirits were closed with a vengeance and thus the paganization of the Christian church was complete.

One "orthodox" doctrine championed by Augustine was the doctrine of the Trinity. Yet he "confesses" that he was driven to seek God's truth after reading "those books of the [Neo]Platonist.” (Confess VII.20). It was these books which convinced him of the literal deity of Jesus! (Confess VII.9;VIII.2). Prior to this time, his view of Christ had been similar to that of the Photinus of Sirmium. (Confess VII.19). That is to say, Augustine believed in Jesus' complete and uncompromised humanity before being persuaded by Neo- Platonic philosophy that Jesus had preexisted as God Himself.

Augustine did not get his belief in the Trinity from the Scriptures, but he honestly admits it was from the Greeks. “The Neo-Platonist philosophers who thought and writings play the most influential part in Augustine's story were Plotinus and his disciple Porphyry.” (The Confessions of St. Augustine p.16). In this connection, it is instructive to note that Origen's teacher was Ammonius Saccas, who was Plotinus' master.

Is not difficult to observe the early influence of the Greek philosophers on the Church fathers. Clement of Alexandria was so steep in pagan philosophy that he explained, “Greek philosophy purges the soul, and prepares it beforehand for the reception of faith, on which the truth builds up the edifice of Gnosis.” (Clement of Alexandria, xia iii). Clement, who is honored as a saint by the Roman Church, wrote volumes on the “Gnostic” whom he called the "true Christian." He stated, in Stromata 7:1, The Gnostic alone is truly pious...The true Christian is a Gnostic!”
He also explained “Thus philosophy was necessary to the Greeks for righteousness, until the coming of the Lord. And now it assists towards true religion is a kind of preparatory training for those who arrive at faith by way of demonstration. For 'Thy foot shall not stumble' if thou attribute to Providence all good, whether it belong to the Greeks or to us. For God is the source of all good things; of some primarily, as of the old and New Testament; of others by consequence, as of philosophy. But it may be, indeed, that philosophy was given to the Greeks immediately and primarily, until the Lord should call the Greeks. For philosophy was a 'schoolmaster' to bring the Greek mind to Christ, as the law brought the Hebrews. Thus philosophy was a preparation, paving the way towards perfection in Christ.” Clement of Alexandria(c.200), Stromateis, I.v.28

Tertullian writes, “Wretched Aristotle! Who taught them dialectic, that art of building up and demolishing, so protean in statement, so far-fetched in conjecture, so unyielding in controversy, so productive of disputes; self-stultifying, since it is ever handling questions but never settling anything… what is there in common between Athens and Jerusalem? What between the Academy and the Church? What between heretics and Christians?... away with all the projects for a 'Stoic,' a Platonic' or a 'dialectic' Christianity! After Christ Jesus we desire no subtle theories, no acute inquiries after the gospel…” (Tertullian (c.160-240) De praescriptione haereticorum (c.200) ,vii).


That this new triumph in Church was a departure from the church which the Lord founded is provided by the centuries of violent persecution that followed. This doctrine produced not “the fruit of the spirit” but the “works of the flesh.” (Gal. 5:19-23)


Why is all this important? Jesus tell us in Mark that it is possible to nullify God's Word in our lives because we refuse to give up human tradition… Mar 7:13 thus making void the word of God by your tradition that you have handed down. And many such things you do." We need to stop looking at Scriptures through the eyes of the Greek philosopher, and start looking anew with Hebrew eyes. Timothy Freke and Peter Gandy in their book The Jesus Mysteries go on to explain that a divine Trinity is not found in Judaism, but it is prefigured by paganism. Aristotle \writes of the Pythagorean doctrine that "the whole and everything in it is comprehended by the number three, for end, middle and beginning have the number of the whole, that is the Trinity." Hundreds of years earlier, an ancient Egyptian text has God proclaimed: "being One I became Three." Another reads, "Three are all the gods, Amon, Ra, Ptah: there are none like them. Hidden in his name Amon, he is Ra, his body is Ptah. He is manifested in Amon, with Ra and Ptah, the three united.”

It was against the threat of Gnosticism that the Apostles battled continuously as they sought to preserve the Jewish Messianic framework in which biblical Christianity is set. The first target of the Gnostics was the resurrection of the dead, which for the apostles meant the calling to life of the faithful dead to gain immortality. The struggle to preserve the pure NT doctrine of the resurrection was unfortunately lost in the centuries following the death of the Apostles. Though certainly the church claimed that it was winning the battle, what actually happened was a partial surrender to the Gnostics. What survived as "Christian" teaching about life after death owes as much to Gnosticism as it does to the teaching of Jesus and the Apostles. According to the New Testament the dead are at present "asleep" (1 Cor.15:18, 20; 1 Thess.5:10) in the grave waiting to be called in to life again when Jesus returns.

It is interesting to note the warning sounded by Justin Martyr about 150A.D:
"For if you have fallen in with some who are called Christian, but who do not admit the truth of the resurrection and venture to blasphemy the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob; who say that there is no resurrection of the dead but that their souls when they die are taken into heaven: Do not imagine that they are Christians" (dialogue with Trypho, ch.80).

For, as William Tyndale argued with the Roman Catholic Church, what point is there in a future resurrection of the dead if in fact they have already achieved their glory in heaven? Thus, it is
established that the later Christian doctrine of the One God in Trinity is paralleled in a number of pre-Christian belief systems along with doctrine of the resurrection.

Paul
Pierac
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Pierac »

A brief history of the Church after Nicaea

Here is a small section of writings… You must realize that in the early days Greek philosophy was the major thought pattern of the civilized world. Anyone who was anyone was educated in Greek philosophy. Another reason why these philosophies were so quick to influence early Christianity is that in the beginning of the church, the leaders were for the most part Jewish, with the Jewish concept of God.

"The Jews conceive God as an absolutely simple unity (inferring absolutely no constituent divisions)." (Jewish Thought 6/12/96)

When Christianity started spreading, the leaders of the churches were now Gentiles who had converted to Christianity. These people, for the most part, had been educated in Greek philosophies in their schools and universities. As educated persons, they of course wanted to find a place for their new religious beliefs within the philosophical framework they had already acquired. So when they read Hebrew Scriptures, they could not help injecting Greek philosophical meanings into them. The Encyclopedia Britannica says concerning Christian Platonist:

"They did not believe that truth could conflict with truth and were confident that all that was rationally certain in Platonic speculation would prove to be in perfect accordance with the Christian revelation. Their unhistorical approach and unscholarly methods of exegesis of texts, both pagan and Christian, facilitated this confidence."

There was also the felt need of some Christians with Greek philosophical training to express Christianity in those terms, both for their own intellectual satisfaction and in order to convert educated pagans.

What is needed today is to remove all the Greek influence from what is called modern day Christianity, and return to the Christianity that was preached by Jesus and his Apostles.

The Council of Nicaea, in 325 AD., made "Jesus of the same substance as God." This is not the Trinitarian doctrine we know of today, but it was a start. Fifty-six years later, at the Council of Constantinople in 381 AD., the Holy Spirit was added to the formula, bringing to life the modern day Trinity. One can easily see that even at Nicaea the Trinity was not an established doctrine by the absence of the Holy Spirit. Trinitarians will argue that the belief in a triune God was there from the Apostles, and that it was formalized as dogma at Nicaea and Constantinople. But the fact is that the New Testament does not anywhere teach the doctrine of the Trinity. The Doctrine of the Trinity, was not an established doctrine from Apostolic times, but a slowly developing idea that took over three hundred years to formalize.


325 AD - Constantine convenes the Council of Nicaea in order to develop a statement of faith that can unify the church. The Nicene Creed is written, declaring that "the Father and the Son are of the same substance" (homoousios). Emperor Constantine who was also the high priest of the pagan religion of the Unconquered Sun presided over this council. According to the Encyclopedia Britannica:
"Constantine himself presided, actively guiding the discussions and personally proposed the crucial formula expressing the relationship of Christ to God in the creed issued by the council. "of one substance with the Father."
The American Academic Encyclopedia states:

"Although this was not Constantine's first attempt to reconcile factions in Christianity, it was the first time he had used the imperial office to IMPOSE a settlement."

At the end of this council, Constantine sided with Athanasius over Arius and exiled Arius to Illyria.

328 AD - Athanasius becomes bishop of Alexandria.

328 AD - Constantine recalls Arius from Illyria.

335 AD - Constantine now sides with Arius and exiles Athanasius to Trier.

337 AD - A new emperor, Contantius, orders the return of Athanasius to Alexandria.

339 AD - Athanasius flees Alexandria in anticipation of being expelled.

341 AD - Two councils are held in Antioch this year. During this council, the First, Second, and Third Arian Confessions are written, thereby beginning the attempt to produce a formal doctrine of faith to oppose the Nicene Creed.

343 AD - At the Council of Sardica, Eastern Bishops demand the removal of Athanasius.

346 AD - Athanasius is restored to Alexandria.

351 AD - A second anti - Nicene council is held in Sirmium.

353 AD - A council is held at Aries during Autumn that is directed against Athanasius.

355 AD - A council is held in Milan. Athanasius is again condemned.

356 AD - Athanasius is deposed on February 8th, beginning his third exile.

357 AD - Third Council of Sirmium is convened. Both homoousios and homoiousios are avoided as unbiblical, and it is agreed that the Father is greater than His subordinate Son.

359 AD - The Synod of Seleucia is held which affirms that Christ is "like the Father," It does not however, specify how the Son is like the Father.

361 AD - A council is held in Antioch to affirm Arius' positions.

380 AD - Emperor Theodosius the Great declares Christianity the official state religion of the empire.

381 AD - The First Council of Constantinople is held to review the controversy since Nicaea. Emperor Theodosius the Great establishes the creed of Nicaea as the standard for his realm. The Nicene Creed is re-evaluated and accepted with the addition of clauses on the Holy Spirit and other matters. (History of Arian Controversy)

If you believe that Nicaea just formalized the prevalent teaching of the church, then there really should not have been any conflicts. Why should there be? If it were the established teaching of the church, then you would expect people to either accept it, or not be Christians. It would be like me being a member of the Communist Party. I would join it knowing that they do not believe in the ownership of private property, no conflict. But now, say after I have been a member of the party for a few years, someone decides to introduce a proposal that we allow the ownership of private property, not everyone in the party is going to agree, the result is conflict. This is similar to what happened in the church. It was not the established teaching, and when some faction of the church tried to make it official, the result was major conflict.
It was mainly a theological power grab by certain factions of the church. The major complication throughout all this was that the emperors were involved. At Nicaea it was Constantine that decided the outcome. Then as you can see, we have the flip-flopping of opinion with the result that Athanasius is exiled and recalled depending on who is in power. We even have in 357 AD the declaration that homoousios and homoiousios are unbiblical, and that the Father is greater than His subordinate Son. This is 180 degrees from Nicaea. It is definitely not the Trinitarian formula.

In 380 AD Emperor Thedosius declares Christianity the state religion. One can come to the conclusion that whichever way Theodosius favors, is the way in which it is going to end. This is exactly what happened next. In 381 AD the struggle was finally ended by the current emperor, Theodosius the Great, who favored the Nicene position. Just like at Nicaea, the EMPEROR again decided it. The emperors were dictating the theology of the church. The big difference now was that there was not going to be any more changing sides. It was now the state religion. You cannot make Christianity the state religion and then change its beliefs every few years, it would undermine its credibility as the true faith. The Trinity was now the orthodox position, and the state was willing to back it up. Debates however, would continue for years to come.

so what is the truth?
Paul
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Pierac »

Sorry Jac3510 for taking over your topic. This has been a difficult study for me, one that has been ongoing for the past 8 months. I have put together a lot of information as you can see. I will drop the discussion if you so wish. I'm not sure any one can help anyway. I've gone too far to go back. If my information is too offensive let me know and I will delete it.

Peace
Paul
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Jac3510 »

Pierac - if you really want to believe the Trinity, all you have to do is decide that the Bible--not history and philosophy--is where you get your information from. The Bible says the Father is God. The Bible says Jesus is God. The Bible says the Holy Spirit is God (a person, not a force). The Bible says there is ONE God, not three.

So you only have two options. One is Modalism, which is the idea that God manifested Himself in three ways. The other is Trinitarianism. Modalism is rejected by Scripture because we see the Father talking TO Jesus while the Holy Spirit descends UPON Him. So that only leaves the Trinity. The PERSONS, one BEING. It is not that complicated.

Now, if you have a better system that covers that data (The Father is God, Jesus is God, the HS is God, there is only one God), then let's hear it. If you are going to deny that Jesus or the HS is God, though, then you have a major, major, major problem, and it isn't because you are rejecting the Trinity. It is because you are rejecting who God says Jesus is.

edit: there's nothing wrong with the info you've gotten together. It's just all from irrelevant sources. We can talk history and philosophy until the cows come home, or until Jesus returns, whichever comes first, and not get anywhere. You have to decide that you believe what the Bible says first, foremost, and absolutely. The Bible teaches Trinitarianism in that it teaches the divinity of the Father, Son, and Spirit, and in that it teaches monotheism. That's all that is really important here.
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Pierac »

Hello, Jac3510


It's not that I want to believe in the Trinity. It's more the consequences that go along with not believing. I understand your point about going to Scripture. That's where I was headed next. My posts on agency, philosophy and Nicaea were just background information. However, agency is a key component to my understanding.

Paul
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Fortigurn »

zoegirl wrote:Fortigurn, you don't believe in the doctrine of sub. atonement. Do you believe we need atonement? Do our sins need payment?
Atonement is the wrong word to use, because of all the theological baggage attached to it. We sin. We need forgiveness. We are forgiven through grace. That's it. It's as simple as Matthew 18:23:35.

The problem with the substitutionary atonement is that it totally eliminates the grace of God from the process of forgiveness. It's the story of a God who was so enraged with us that He couldn't find it in Himself to forgive us. He was sending us all to hell. In order to be saved, the price of the punishment had to be paid. So Jesus came down to earth and pretended to die, and for some reason God decided that was sufficient payment. Jesus never went to hell, so he didn't pay the price we incurred.

Worst of all, God never forgave us. He was bought off. To say that God forgave us only after He had insisted on being paid, is like a shopkeeper saying to you 'This costs %50, but I'll give it to you for free -if you give me $50'. You beg and plead, but he just won't change his mind. A nice guy comes along and gives the shopkeeper the $50. Everyone is happy, and you go off thinking 'Wow, that shopkeeper is so nice, he gave that thing to me for free!'. It's a farce. If forgiveness was earned by payment, then it's not grace. God expects us to hold each other to a far higher standard than that, so how can we expect His own standard would be lower, especially since He provides His standard as our example?

Look at this passage from Matthew 18:
Matthew 18:
23 “For this reason, the kingdom of heaven is like a king who wanted to settle accounts with his slaves.
24 As he began settling his accounts, a man who owed ten thousand talents was brought to him.
25 Because he was not able to repay it, the lord ordered him to be sold, along with his wife, children, and whatever he possessed, and repayment to be made.

26 Then the slave threw himself to the ground before him, saying, 'Be patient with me, and I will repay you everything.'
27 The lord had compassion on that slave and released him, and forgave him the debt.

28 After he went out, that same slave found one of his fellow slaves who owed him one hundred silver coins. So he grabbed him by the throat and started to choke him, saying, 'Pay back what you owe me!'
29 Then his fellow slave threw himself down and begged him, 'Be patient with me, and I will repay you.'

30 But he refused. Instead, he went out and threw him in prison until he repaid the debt.

31 When his fellow slaves saw what had happened, they were very upset and went and told their lord everything that had taken place.
32 Then his lord called the first slave and said to him, 'Evil slave! I forgave you all that debt because you begged me!
33 Should you not have shown mercy to your fellow slave, just as I showed it to you?'

34 And in anger his lord turned him over to the prison guards to torture him until he repaid all he owed.
35 So also my heavenly Father will do to you, if each of you does not forgive your brother from your heart.”
The king represents God. Now did the king forgive freely, or did He insist on receiving a payment before forgiving the servant?

In this parable, someone refuses to forgive unless they are paid to forgive. They refuse to be gracious. They insist on being bought off. That person comes to a very terrible end. God hates that attitude. It is incredible to me that people insist on attributing it to Him. Remember also that Christ teaches us that we are to forgive exactly as God forgives. Does that mean we forgive freely, or that we insist on being paid for our forgiveness?
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Fortigurn »

zoegirl wrote:Let me see if I can break this down...He was capable of paying for our sins (as you and I both agreed on this, He was able to meet the requirement) but there was also His willingness to pay for our sins, His love, HIs sacrifice.
This thread is useless without Scripture.
It seems that if all God needed was a sinless man and He simply pointed to one and said "ok, you, you will pay for the sins of my people", it would point to a capability of paying but not of a willingness to pay. I have often heard the analogy of God and Christ as a judge who stepped down and paid the bailiff himself for the crime of the defendant (after going to traffic court, this analogy hits home more :D ). Now imagine the analogy but this time the Judge told someone in the courtroom to stand up and pay for the crime. See, this takes away from the love and sacrifice. The judge is certainly capably of paying but is unwilling to do so.
I'm suggesting - and I realise it may be a novelty to you - that Christ did not die in order to pay the penalty for our sins. God forgave us because He loved us. It's radical, but I believe it's Scriptural (John 3:16).
No, begotten is not the same word for created, it indicates from the same nature....
Lexical evidence please that GENNAW means 'from the same nature', not 'brought into existence'.
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by bizzt »

Fortigurn wrote:
I'm suggesting - and I realise it may be a novelty to you - that Christ did not die in order to pay the penalty for our sins. God forgave us because He loved us. It's radical, but I believe it's Scriptural (John 3:16).
Errrr am I misinterpreting but are you saying that Christ did not have to die to pay the penalty of our Sins?

Heb 9:28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
1Jo 1:7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Fortigurn »

bizzt wrote:
Fortigurn wrote:
I'm suggesting - and I realise it may be a novelty to you - that Christ did not die in order to pay the penalty for our sins. God forgave us because He loved us. It's radical, but I believe it's Scriptural (John 3:16).
Errrr am I misinterpreting but are you saying that Christ did not have to die to pay the penalty of our Sins?
Yes that's right.
Heb 9:28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
1Jo 1:7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.
Neither of those passages say that Christ died to pay the penalty for our sins. Look closely. They both make the point that we are saved through Christ's death, but neither says anything about Christ paying the penalty for our sins.
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Kurieuo »

I just want to ask of those who voted that belief in the Trinity is required to be saved, what such people would say of babies, a young child, or those who have never heard the Gospel and so had a true opportunity to be saved.

The question as I see is framed so that belief is a necessary part of salvation - there are no "special cases" ALL must have a belief in the Trinity. If the question was framed a different way on the other hand, like does one's denial of Trinity mean one is not saved, then there would likely be a lot more affirmations of this (especially if the reason for such a person rejecting the Trinity is due to their rejection of Christ's divinity as previously discussed).

So I kind of feel the question has been rigged to draw a certain set of results, although I am not quite sure why? Which makes me think perhaps it hasn't been. :?:
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by zoegirl »

To the degree that I believe that the *identity* of Christ is paramount to salvation (after, you are to believe who He is and what He did and why He did it and that He did it for you), I believe that an understanding of the deity of Christ is important to salvation. But unless, as Jac suggested, it it modalism, then I don't see another altnerative than the trinity.

On the other had, no matter what you prescribe to tbe the path of slavation, wouldn't you still have the question of what happens to babies, the infirm, etc? I mean, what difference does the trinity have on the difficulty of the question? In other words, wouldn't we still have the wrestle with this question even without the trinity?
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Pierac »

The question as I see is framed so that belief is a necessary part of salvation - there are no "special cases" ALL must have a belief in the Trinity. If the question was framed a different way on the other hand, like does one's denial of Trinity mean one is not saved, then there would likely be a lot more affirmations of this (especially if the reason for such a person rejecting the Trinity is due to their rejection of Christ's divinity as previously discussed).

So I kind of feel the question has been rigged to draw a certain set of results, although I am not quite sure why? Which makes me think perhaps it hasn't been.
To the degree that I believe that the *identity* of Christ is paramount to salvation (after, you are to believe who He is and what He did and why He did it and that He did it for you), I believe that an understanding of the deity of Christ is important to salvation. But unless, as Jac suggested, it it modalism, then I don't see another altnerative than the trinity.

On the other had, no matter what you prescribe to tbe the path of slavation, wouldn't you still have the question of what happens to babies, the infirm, etc? I mean, what difference does the trinity have on the difficulty of the question? In other words, wouldn't we still have the wrestle with this question even without the trinity?
Kuriueo, Zoegirl
What happens to babies?

Our God is love. He is not justice. He is love. What is the difference between a baby and a 70yr old man living in South America in 1100 A.D. Neither, has/had a chance to confess Jesus. Same goes for billions of others that have not had the privilege to hear of Jesus. What happens to them? Would a God of love send billions to hell all because they were born in a time that did not have the knowledge of His son Jesus? Hard questions indeed. Yet, the answers are in our scriptures.

Paul
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by zoegirl »

The question Kuriero asked implied that there was somthine unique in the trinity that demads us to ask what happens to babies. My reply is that why is this tough question exclusive to the matter of th trinity.

Your replies continually assume that you must tutor us in matters, assuming an ignorance that isn't there. My reply addresses the need to even ask such a question in relationship to the trinity. Now I know the natural response is that how does a knowledge of something be a prereqisite for salvation to those who do not have that knowledge. But this quesiton can be asked of the saving knowledge of Christ, not just that of the trinity.

I'm not saying the the trinity must be understood on an intellectual level for salvation. Its' not an answer on a test that assures us of passing. And to that end, I'll agree that it is not a requirement for salvation. But a belief in Christ is, and that includes acknowledging who He is and what He did and accepting that sacrifice for oneself. That still leaves the question of the babies but surely that covers all mattes of a saving knowledge.
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