More Trinity stuff

General discussions about Christianity including salvation, heaven and hell, Christian history and so on.
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Must a person believe in the Trinity to be saved?

Yes
3
25%
No
9
75%
Undecided
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Total votes: 12

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bizzt
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by bizzt »

YLTYLT wrote:It seems quite simple to me:

When scripture calls Jesus: Jesus Christ, Christ is his title. Christ means Messiah or Saviour.

And as B.W. has clearly, and repeatedly pointed out from the old testament that only God can be the Savior.

Isaiah 43:11
I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.

Isaiah 45:21
Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; a just God and a Saviour; there is none beside me.

Hosea 13:4
Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: for there is no saviour beside me.

We could not call Jesus, Christ if he was not God....
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Jesus Himself claims to be the one that stood before Moses at the burning bush, when he says "before Abraham was, I AM"

Exodus 3:14
And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

John 8:58
Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
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And in John 10:33, the jews even believed that he claimed to be God.

The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

Now you might says that Jesus tries to explain it away in verse by saying

10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

But this did not matter The Jews listening to this. They still thought that he was claiming to be God. Which he of course he was...
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Now any one of these arguements by themselves might possibly be explained away with the arguemets you have been professing. But when you take all these things into consideration as well as the numerous verses provided by B.W. and Jac, I do not see how anyone can come to any other conclusion that there is a Trinity. And that the references to the "angel of the Lord" in the OT are the preincarnate Jesus.

Now man's view of the Trinity cannot be defined in terms that man has the capability to imagine. But just logically thinkng, If God is eternal, and God is love, then there must be something else that has eternally existed for God to Love. Or Can love exist without an object of love? I believe this object is the Son.

The Son also eternally exists as a perfect image of the Father. The Holy Spirit also eternally exists as a manifestation of the perfect love from the Father to the Son and the Son's perfect love from the Son to the Father. They each subsist (or must necessarily exist) because of the others. This is one entity that cannot be separated, consisting of three persons. Scripture teaches that each has an intellect, emotion, and volition:

Here are just a few verses about each (forgive me if I do not write them out but my computer is about to reboot) :?
* Mind (i.e., intellect )
Father: - Lev 24:12,
Son: - Phil 2:5,
HS: I Cor 2:11 and Rom 8:27

* Heart (i.e., emotion )
Father: Heb 11:6,
Son: Jn 11:35
HS: Eph 4:30

* Will (i.e., volition)
FAther: Jn 4:23, Mt 7:21
Son: Mt 26:39
HS: I Cor 12:11 and Heb 9:14
To add one more scripture (maybe Paragraph :))....
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
Joh 1:4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
Joh 1:5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.
Joh 1:6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.
Joh 1:7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.
Joh 1:8 He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.
Joh 1:9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.
Joh 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
Joh 1:11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.
Joh 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
Joh 1:13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
Joh 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
Pierac
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Pierac »

YLTYLT Wrote: When scripture calls Jesus: Jesus Christ, Christ is his title. Christ means Messiah or Saviour.
You are only half right.

Dr. Hugh Schonfield, in his book the Passover Plot. Reported that many Christians he spoke with were not even aware that the term "Christ" was simply a Greek translation of the Hebrew title Messiah, and thought somehow that it referred to the Second Person of the Trinity. "So connected had the word 'Christ' become with the idea of Jesus as God incarnate that the title 'Messiah' was treated as something curiously Jewish and not associated.”

N.T. Write, the Bishop of Litchfield, agrees: “One of the most persistent mistakes throughout the literature on Jesus and the last hundred years is to use the word 'Christ,' which simply means 'Messiah', as though it was a 'divine' title.” Who was Jesus? p.57.

According to its OT usage, the term Messiah, the Anointed One, indicates a call to office.
Most certainly, it was not the title of an aspect of the Godhead. This is a later Gentile invention that came about by ignoring Jesus' Jewish context and inventing a doctrine called the Incarnation- the idea that a second member of the Trinity, God the son, became a human being. As Lockhart says, in Jesus the Heretic, p.137. “Christianity ignored the 'Messiah' and theologically worked the 'Christ' up into the 'God-Man.' Jesus as the 'Messiah' is a human being; Jesus as the 'Christ' is something entirely different.”

Jesus calls himself "a man" (John 8:40) and the apostles call him "a man" (Acts 2: 22; 1 Tim. 2:5). He is constantly contrasted with and distinguished from God, his Father. The Hebrew Bible or OT, predicted Jesus would be a man (Is.53:3). But never does the scriptures use the term "God-Man" to tell us who Jesus is. The Greek language of the day had a perfectly good word for “God-Man” (theios aner) but it never appears in the New Testament. So why do we persist with these extra-biblical terms? Why do we continue to employ non-biblical (i.e. unbiblical) language to describe Jesus?

The Bible verse saying is true which says that we are very quick to spot the speck in the eye of another's theology, but how blind we are to the beam in our own. Mary is not the mother of God, according to the scriptures. And neither is Jesus God the Son, nor is he the "God-Man" according to the Bible. And he is nowhere called "God of from God" as the later Nicene Creed called him. Protestants, people of the Bible ought to know that the contentious extra-biblical word used at Nicea, homoousios, meaning 'of equal substance,' “did not come from Scripture but, of all things, from Gnostic systems.” Quote from Born Before All-Time? p. 500. Kuschel.
The result was that such terminology introduced alien notions into Christian understanding of God. In other words, "an epoch-making paradigm shift has taken place between Scriptures and Nicea.” Born Before All-Time? p. 503. Kuschel

Sorry but Christ does not mean Savior. It means the anointed one. If Jesus is God then the question you should be asking is Who is anointing him?


Now back to my one question.

If Jesus is God, then how can He have a God as stated both before and after His resurrection?



Peace,
Paul
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B. W.
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by B. W. »

I see Fortigurn you are back again — How was the Typhoon? I see that you a Pierac have tagged teamed either by accident or design and are determined to spread a falsehood about Jesus and who he really is. You are both masters of scripture twisting —

If I and another came on your favorite Christdelphain Forum, Fortigurn, and spammed some thread line on it by not giving time for you to respond — what would you do? You both really do not know the Lord nor are either of you willing to learn anything about God. That is a shame. You cannot answer what the bible says about who God is — For example:

As it is written in Genesis 1:26, “Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness…”

Who is the 'us' and 'our' referred to in Genesis 1:26? An angel or being other than God?

How can that be when Isaiah 45:18 states, “For thus says the LORD, who created the heavens (he is God!), who formed the earth and made it (he established it; he did not create it empty, he formed it to be inhabited!): "I am the LORD, and there is no other.” ESV

And again: Isaiah 45:12, “I, even I, have made the earth, and created man upon it; I, even My hands, have stretched out the heavens, and all their host have I commanded." JPS

Only God did this and no other: Isaiah 42:5, “Thus says God, the LORD, who created the heavens and stretched them out, who spread out the earth and what comes from it, who gives breath to the people on it and spirit to those who walk in it:” ESV

Your interpretation of Genesis account of creation and use of word for God translated cannot answer - Who is the 'us' and 'our' referred to in Genesis 1:26? It cannot refer to angels as only the Lord created and no other.

Jeremiah 10:10-14, “But the LORD is the true God; he is the living God and the everlasting King. At his wrath the earth quakes, and the nations cannot endure his indignation. 11 Thus shall you say to them: "The gods who did not make the heavens and the earth shall perish from the earth and from under the heavens." 12 It is he who made the earth by his power, who established the world by his wisdom, and by his understanding stretched out the heavens. 13 When he utters his voice, there is a tumult of waters in the heavens, and he makes the mist rise from the ends of the earth. He makes lightning for the rain, and he brings forth the wind from his storehouses. 14 Every man is stupid and without knowledge; every goldsmith is put to shame by his idols, for his images are false, and there is no breath in them.” ESV

You see there was no one else God was talking too — this the scriptures declare! The doctrine of the Trinity is upheld in the Bible — it is everywhere. I cannot help your ignorance of scripture. You have made an Idol out of God's own word and twisted it so as to deny who God really is it reveals.

Jeremiah 27:5, "It is I who by my great power and my outstretched arm have made the earth, with the men and animals that are on the earth, and I give it to whomever it seems right to me."
ESV

Jeremiah 32:17.”'Ah, Lord GOD! It is you who have made the heavens and the earth by your great power and by your outstretched arm! Nothing is too hard for you…”ESV

Notice the arm of the Lord is mentioned in the above verse and the one list here: Isaiah 53:1, “Who has believed what he has heard from us? And to whom has the arm of the LORD been revealed?”

Notice in Jeremiah 10:12, “It is he who made the earth by his power, who established the world by his wisdom, and by his understanding stretched out the heavens. 13 When he utters his voice, there is a tumult of waters in the heavens, and he makes the mist rise from the ends of the earth. He makes lightning for the rain, and he brings forth the wind from his storehouses.” ESV

More what the NT reveals:

Notice that the definition of Greek word 'logos' concerns the expression intelligence, wisdom, and thought within the heart and/or spoken — revealed.

John 8:43, “Why do you not understand what I say? It is because you cannot bear to hear my word": διατ߁ τὴν λαλιὰν τὴν ἐμὴν οὐ γινώσκετε; ὅτι οὐ δύνασθε ἀκούειν τὸν λόγον τὸν ἐμόν.”

John 1:18 - Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακε πώποτε·- μονογενὴς Θεὸς - ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγށσατο.

John 1:1-18, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God.3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. 4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men…14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth… ESV -- note Verse -18 No one has seen God at any time. The only-begotten [or, unique] Son, the One in the bosom of the Father, that One explained [Him] [or, made [Him] known]…” ALT

The ALT explains verse 18 well as does the NA 26-27 - Greek word order - "God no one has seen ever - an only one God - the one being in the bosom of the Father that one explained [Him]."

This meaning of the text of John 1:18 cannot be explained away with such triteness as Pierac and Fortigurn attempt.

John Chapter One reveals who Jesus is and is supported by all scriptures quoted above and yet — “Why do you not understand what I say? It is because you cannot bear to hear my word…”

Pierac and Fortigurn — you do not know Jesus — the real Jesus at all - as you "cannot bear to hear my logos. "

Again — the bible is very specific — there were no little gods, angels, that God was speaking too in the Genesis account no matter what great swelling words of emptiness you concoct to support a belief in another Jesus that the bible does not teach or support.

Since you grant no one time to honestly go through the passages you cite and respond — It will pay not to answer each. Instead — Just point out that you: “διατ߁ τὴν λαλιὰν τὴν ἐμὴν οὐ γινώσκετε; ὅτι οὐ δύνασθε ἀκούειν τὸν λόγον τὸν ἐμόν.”

Only God can save — Only God created — Who then is Jesus?
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Science is man's invention - creation is God's
(by B. W. Melvin)

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Fortigurn
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Fortigurn »

B. W. wrote:I see Fortigurn you are back again — How was the Typhoon?
It missed Taipei. We're just experiencing heavy rain and a thunderstorm.
I see that you a Pierac have tagged teamed either by accident or design and are determined to spread a falsehood about Jesus and who he really is. You are both masters of scripture twisting —
I have no communication with Pierac aside from the public posts we make here, and we are certainly not 'tagged teamed' in any deliberate sense. By the way, you might want to omit the insults when you post.
If I and another came on your favorite Christdelphain Forum, Fortigurn, and spammed some thread line on it by not giving time for you to respond — what would you do?
I would ask you to give me time to respond. But as it happens, this hasn't happened to you. No one is spamming any thread here without giving you time to respond. You've had ample time to respond. I make one post for every one post of yours. I don't make several posts which I expect you to answer, and I don't make posts directed at you until you've answered my last.
You both really do not know the Lord nor are either of you willing to learn anything about God. That is a shame. You cannot answer what the bible says about who God is — For example:
These are more insults, but not proper arguments.
As it is written in Genesis 1:26, “Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness…”

Who is the 'us' and 'our' referred to in Genesis 1:26? An angel or being other than God?
I have answered this many times before on this forum. I'll answer it again. God is addressing the angels, as even modern Evangelical commentators confirm. Here it is again:
From the footnote on Genesis 1:26 in the New English Translation (a standard evangelical translation):
The plural form of the verb has been the subject of much discussion through the years, and not surprisingly several suggestions have been put forward. Many Christian theologians interpret it as an early hint of plurality within the Godhead, but this view imposes later trinitarian concepts on the ancient text.

Some have suggested the plural verb indicates majesty, but the plural of majesty is not used with verbs. C. Westermann (Genesis, 1:145) argues for a plural of “deliberation” here, but his proposed examples of this use (2 Sam 24:14; Isa 6:8) do not actually support his theory. In 2 Sam 24:14 David uses the plural as representative of all Israel, and in Isa 6:8 the Lord speaks on behalf of his heavenly court.

In its ancient Israelite context the plural is most naturally understood as referring to God and his heavenly court (see 1 Kgs 22:19-22; Job 1:6-12; 2:1-6; Isa 6:1-8). (The most well-known members of this court are God's messengers, or angels. In Gen 3:5 the serpent may refer to this group as “gods/divine beings.”

See the note on the word “evil” in 3:5.) If this is the case, God invites the heavenly court to participate in the creation of mankind (perhaps in the role of offering praise, see Job 38:7), but he himself is the one who does the actual creative work (v. 27). Of course, this view does assume that the members of the heavenly court possess the divine “image” in some way.
Emphasis mine.
How can that be when Isaiah 45:18 states, “For thus says the LORD, who created the heavens (he is God!), who formed the earth and made it (he established it; he did not create it empty, he formed it to be inhabited!): "I am the LORD, and there is no other.” ESV

And again: Isaiah 45:12, “I, even I, have made the earth, and created man upon it; I, even My hands, have stretched out the heavens, and all their host have I commanded." JPS

Only God did this and no other: Isaiah 42:5, “Thus says God, the LORD, who created the heavens and stretched them out, who spread out the earth and what comes from it, who gives breath to the people on it and spirit to those who walk in it:” ESV
It can be for the simple reason that although in Genesis 1:26 (when God makes the statement), the verb for 'make' is plural (agreeing with 'us'), when the actual act is carried out in Genesis 1:27 the verb for 'made' is singular, agreeing with 'God'. So the Bible affirms that only one person made all things, and that one person is God, whom this text reveals explicitly as one person.

Let's have a look in the New Testament. Wouldn't it be interesting if Jesus came right out and told us that he was responsible for creating the heavens and the earth?
Mathew 19:
4 He answered, “Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator made them male and female,
No, Jesus speaks of one person, and describes that person as someone other than himself.
Revelation 4:
11 “You are worthy, our Lord and God,
to receive glory and honor and power,
since you created all things,
and because of your will they existed and were created!“
Notice that these words are spoken to the Father, not to the Son! We know this because 'the one who sits upon the throne' is the Father, while the Lamb is clearly Jesus. Revelation 4 is a direct parallel to Isaiah 6, and both passages find a parallel in Daniel 7, which refers back to Revelation 13 and 17.
Revelation 14:
7 He declared in a loud voice: “Fear God and give him glory, because the hour of his judgment has arrived, and worship the one who made heaven and earth, the sea and the springs of water!“
Notice that these words are also spoken to the Father, not to the son. Every pronoun is singular, and the verbs for creation are all singular. There are no references to anybody but the Father Himself creating the universe. More could be added.
Only God can save — Only God created — Who then is Jesus?
We've both answered this many times before. I'll give yet again the apostles' answer - Jesus is the son of God, the man appointed by God as the mediator between God and men, the agent through whom God saves.

In his speech to the Jews on the day of Pentecost, the apostle Peter tells them that Jesus is a man attested by God:
Acts 2:
22 “Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man clearly attested to you by God with powerful deeds, wonders, and miraculous signs that God performed among you through him, just as you yourselves know—
23 this man, who was handed over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you executed by nailing him to a cross at the hands of Gentiles.
The apostle Peter taught that Jesus is a man, not God, or even a God, or even on the same level as God. Three thousand people were baptized into Christ that day, with the understanding that he was a man. True Christians therefore are baptized with the belief that Jesus is a man.

Note also that Peter distinguishes Christ from God, and says that Christ was a man through whom God worked, not that he was God who became man.

In his speech to the people after he had healed the lame mand, the apostle Peter tells them that Jesus was the fulfillment of the prophecy given by Moses, that God would send them a Messiah who was a man like them:
Acts 3:
22 Moses said, 'The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among your brothers. You must obey him in everything he tells you.
23 Every person who does not obey that prophet will be destroyed and thus removed from the people.'
Note that Peter tells the crowd that Jesus was a prophet like Moses, from among their brothers. He does not tell them that Jesus is God, or that he came down from heaven.

In his speech to a law court, the apostle Stephen likewise tells them that Jesus was the fulfillment of the prophecy given by Moses, that God would send them a Messiah who was a man like them:
Acts 7:
37 This is the Moses who said to the Israelites, 'God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among your brothers.
He uses the same quote as the apostle Peter had used, telling them that the prophet God would send (the Messiah), would be 'of your brethren, like unto me' - in other words, a man, a human being.

When he was in Athens, the apostle Paul was speaking to some people about who Jesus was. In his speech, he told them clearly that Jesus was a man who received authority from God:
Acts 17:
30 Therefore, although God has overlooked such times of ignorance, he now commands all people everywhere to repent,
31 because he has set a day on which he is going to judge the world in righteousness, by a man whom he designated, having provided proof to everyone by raising him from the dead.”
Here Paul says that Jesus is a man appointed by God to judge the world. Paul does not preach that Christ is God. He preaches that Christ is a man authorised by God, a man whom God has appointed.

In his first letter to Timothy, the apostle Paul says that there is one God, and that there is one mediator between God and men, and that is Jesus Christ, who he says is a man:
1 Timothy 2:
5 For there is one God and one intermediary between God and humanity, Christ Jesus, himself human,
6 who gave himself as a ransom for all, revealing God's purpose at his appointed time.
Here we have God on one side, and humans on the other. In between we have Christ - a man, not God.

It couldn't be any clearer. The apostles all taught time and time and time again that Jesus was a man at his birth, and was still a man after his resurrection and going to the Father.
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B. W.
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by B. W. »

B. W. wrote:I see Fortigurn you are back again — How was the Typhoon?
Fortigurn wrote:It missed Taipei. We're just experiencing heavy rain and a thunderstorm.
That is good - those kind of storms can cause much damage at least you are safe...
B.W. wrote:I see that you a Pierac have tagged teamed either by accident or design and are determined to spread a falsehood about Jesus and who he really is. You are both masters of scripture twisting —
Fortigurn wrote: I have no communication with Pierac aside from the public posts we make here, and we are certainly not 'tagged teamed' in any deliberate sense. By the way, you might want to omit the insults when you post.
That is also good too - just had to be sure about this and if true I would confront you both on this. I'll omit my insults when you stop yours.
B.W. wrote:If I and another came on your favorite Christdelphain Forum, Fortigurn, and spammed some thread line on it by not giving time for you to respond — what would you do?
Fortigurn wrote:I would ask you to give me time to respond. But as it happens, this hasn't happened to you. No one is spamming any thread here without giving you time to respond. You've had ample time to respond. I make one post for every one post of yours. I don't make several posts which I expect you to answer, and I don't make posts directed at you until you've answered my last.
Fortigurn, this is good to hear that you are not spamming this thread and I'll keep this in mind. Thanks for clearing this up.
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Science is man's invention - creation is God's
(by B. W. Melvin)

Old Polish Proverb:
Not my Circus....not my monkeys
Fortigurn
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Fortigurn »

B. W. wrote:I'll omit my insults when you stop yours.
What have I posted which you believe was an insult directed at you?
Fortigurn, this is good to hear that you are not spamming this thread and I'll keep this in mind. Thanks for clearing this up.
You're welcome. Remember, I'm happy to discuss this topic any time - but some trinitarians aren't.
YLTYLT
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by YLTYLT »

Sorry but Christ does not mean Savior. It means the anointed one. If Jesus is God then the question you should be asking is Who is anointing him?
You would be correct in the literal translation, But this would not logically preclude the fact that the Messiah and the Savior could be the same person.

As a matter of fact these verse all also equated Christ as being the Saviour.

Luke 2:11
For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.
John 4:42
And said unto the woman, Now we believe, not because of thy saying: for we have heard him ourselves, and know that this is indeed the Christ, the Saviour of the world.
Philippians 3:20
For our conversation is in heaven; from whence also we look for the Saviour, the Lord Jesus Christ:
1 Timothy 1:1
Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of God our Saviour, and Lord Jesus Christ, which is our hope;
2 Timothy 1:10
But is now made manifest by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ, who hath abolished death, and hath brought life and immortality to light through the gospel:
Titus 1:4
To Titus, mine own son after the common faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ our Saviour.
Titus 2:13
Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;
Titus 3:6
Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;
2 Peter 1:1
Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:
2 Peter 1:11
For so an entrance shall be ministered unto you abundantly into the everlasting kingdom of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ.2 Peter 2:20
For if after they have escaped the pollutions of the world through the knowledge of the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ, they are again entangled therein, and overcome, the latter end is worse with them than the beginning.
2 Peter 3:18
But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever. Amen.

So unquestionably Jesus is the Christ and the Saviour.

And if he is the saviour then he must be God according to the OT.
Now back to my one question.

If Jesus is God, then how can He have a God as stated both before and after His resurrection?
This is an excellent question, because this is where the idea Trinity must logically begin. Somehow we must resolve the scriptural ideas between Christ being the Saviour, the Saviour being God, and Christ having a God, as well as the ideas of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit being separate persons (each having intellect, emotion and volition) The doctrine of the Trinity is this resolution between these ideas. (Or at least the most all encompassing resolution currently available.) If we believe that all scripture is God inspired, then we have to take it at its Word. Even if the explanation is not logical to men, we cannot exclude certain scriptures, to the accomodation of others. In other words, we cannot just use parts of scripture to create doctrines. Many of the things you bring up are great things to consider, but when you come back to the whole of scripture, the best resolution currently available is still the Trinity.

I suspect there is a likelihood that even the most highly education theologians of history, that their view and explanation of the Trinity would be short of the actual truth, because man cannot completely know the ways of God.


But logically because each of the persons in the triune Godhead is in an eternally perfect, complete and continuous relationship with the othe 2, they are also Gods to each other because they are equal. And If God recognizes that someone is equal to Him then He must recognize this other person as being God as well.

Philippians 2:6
Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Pierac
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Pierac »

YLTYLT Wrote: You would be correct in the literal translation, But this would not logically preclude the fact that the Messiah and the Savior could be the same person.
So are you saying Jesus anointed himself ? Please! His God anointed him!
YLTYLT quoted: Philippians 2:6
Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Did you even read this verse? Being in the form of God is not the same as being God! (Agency)!
How many fake items are sold on the Internet each day that are in the form of the original? Would you then call them the original? NO! Jesus was begotten! That is a biblical FACT! Eternally begotten is a man made! There are no scriptures for Eternally begotten. Eternal means just that! It has no beginning or end. It is a state of being. Eternal is TIMELESS! Jesus had a beginning and thus can not compare to that which had no beginning! Jesus is not TIMELESS! He was raised to immortality but is not eternal. He had a beginning, God did not!

John 5:26 For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;

Yes, God hath given life to the Son, Just like He gave it to us!

John 5:27 And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man.

Jesus was given authority. Why? because he is the Son of man. He did not have any authority of his own!

ESV Num 23:19 God is not man, that he should lie, or a son of man, that he should change his mind. Has he said, and will he not do it? Or has he spoken, and will he not fulfill it?

Here you have it, God is not a man or a son of man. Jesus is frequently called a man and frequently calls himself the son of man! Now who's twisting scripture? You don't believe this verse do you! No you don't and you also reject the verses that tell us Jesus was a man! Who's doing the twisting?



I'm leaving town tomorrow for a week. Can anyone answer my simple question?

If Jesus is God, then how can He have a God as stated both before and after His resurrection? A simple answer is all I ask.






Shema Yisrael ! Deu 6:4 "Hear, O Israel! The LORD is our God, the LORD is one!
Fortigurn
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Fortigurn »

YLTYLT wrote:So unquestionably Jesus is the Christ and the Saviour.
No one has disputed this. What has been rightly disputed is the idea that the word 'Christ' means 'saviour'.
And if he is the saviour then he must be God according to the OT.
No, that's the logical fallacy of the undistributed middle. A number of men are called 'saviour' in the Old Testament. Does that make them God?
But logically because each of the persons in the triune Godhead is in an eternally perfect, complete and continuous relationship with the othe 2, they are also Gods to each other because they are equal. And If God recognizes that someone is equal to Him then He must recognize this other person as being God as well.
You call that 'logical'? So now Jesus is the God of the Father and Holy Spirit, the Father is the God of Jesus and the Holy Spirit, and the Holy Spirit is the God of the Father and Jesus?
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B. W.
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by B. W. »

Fortigrun and Pierac the bible states:

Proverb 27:5, “Better is open rebuke than love that is hidden.” JPS.

Fortigurn, what you think are insults are rebukes as I am genuinely concerned for your eternal state as well as how close you are to insulting the Spirit of grace by leading others to deny the real Jesus that the bible proclaims: The only one that can really honestly save to the uttermost. Only the Lord can save.
Fortigurn wrote: I have answered this many times before on this forum. I'll answer it again. God is addressing the angels, as even modern Evangelical commentators confirm. Here it is again…
Isaiah 45:12, “I, even I, have made the earth, and created man upon it; I, even My hands, have stretched out the heavens, and all their host have I commanded." JPS

It states that only God created man — not with or along side any type of heavenly court. God alone created man - , “I even I, have made the earth, and created man upon it…” Scripture cannot be any plainer than that: “I even I

Now - Jeremiah 10:11-12 also verify's this without debate, “But the LORD is the true God; he is the living God and the everlasting King. At his wrath the earth quakes, and the nations cannot endure his indignation. 11 Thus shall you say to them: "The gods who did not make the heavens and the earth shall perish from the earth and from under the heavens." 12 It is he who made the earth by his power, who established the world by his wisdom, and by his understanding stretched out the heavens. 13 When he utters his voice, there is a tumult of waters in the heavens, and he makes the mist rise from the ends of the earth. He makes lightning for the rain, and he brings forth the wind from his storehouses. 14 Every man is stupid and without knowledge; every goldsmith is put to shame by his idols, for his images are false, and there is no breath in them.” ESV

Your doctrine is built upon false logical construct. The word of God is true — your logic is does not support this about God's word. You will have to try very hard to distort the meaning of the two above quoted text. Insults come in your condescending tones — mocking Christian Faith.

If you continue to try to twist scriptures to fit your doctrine — then you will prove your doctrine false and confirm in an open display how your doctrine twist scripture and uses any human sources to feed off of. Yet, your doctrine cannot contradict, nor can you disprove, the scriptures quoted above. God alone made heaven and earth all the universe and man: there was no high heavenly courtly host helping God out.

God the Father spoke to Son and Holy Spirit in the beginning and only He created man. There was no heavenly court or angels with him. God said — “Let Us make… in Our Image,” Genesis 1:26-27 states revealingly. God did not have a heavenly court, or angelic host He was conferring with as Genesis 2:7-8 confirms: “7 then the LORD God formed the man of dust from the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living creature. 8 And the LORD God planted a garden in Eden, in the east, and there he put the man whom he had formed.” ESV

Genesis 3:22 also states the same thing: “Then the LORD God said, "Behold, the man has become like one of us in knowing good and evil. Now, lest he reach out his hand and take also of the tree of life and eat, and live forever--" ESV

God is not an angel nor was there a heavenly creature host nearby equal to God for God to speak the way he did. From the Genesis account alone, and all within context, without having to run hither and thither to cite this or that human source or rambling stringing scripture together — the Bible declares' it is written that God alone' created man. Conclusion is this: The undivided Trinity: Father, Son, Holy Spirit revealed created.

Why would God say — 'Let Us make… in Our Image and likeness' and say 'least man become like us knowing good and evil' if he was speaking to another creature he had made while the scriptures declare plainly in Genesis 2:7-8, “7 then the LORD God formed the man …8 And the LORD God planted a garden in Eden, in the east, and there he put the man whom he had formed. The very context of the Genesis account betrays your doctrines logic.

You doctrine attempts to use other scriptures that use a heavenly host to support your claims falls flat in a garbage heap because scripture does not support that a heavenly host, or angels, or creature was what God was speaking too in the Genesis account.

Please note that 1 Kings 22:19-22 happened after Genesis not before and is not evidence that this court or heavenly host existed before or during Genesis account of creation. Job 1:6-12; 2:1-6 happened after Genesis not before and is not evidence that this court or host existed before or during Genesis account of creation. Isaiah, 6:1-8 happened after Genesis not before and is not evidence that this court or host existed before or during Genesis account of creation.

The bible does not state specifically a precise time frame that angelic host were created. Since this is so, you cannot imply that these were with God in the Genesis account as God's very words would in essence makes these creature hosts equal to God — not servants. The Bible is extremely specific that only God created man and no angel was involved with God creating:

Isaiah 45:12, “I even I, have made the earth, and created man upon it; I, even My hands, have stretched out the heavens, and all their host have I commanded…." JPS

Is God an angel, seraphim, or a cherub? Whose reflection of whose character was man and woman fashioned to be like in order to exercise just, loving, fair, righteous, wise, intelligent, circumspect, etc, dominion/governance placed in mankind's charge? If some angelic host was involved — the bible would have it recorded plainly in the Genesis account. It does not. It uses the plural form of êlôhîym — as well as yehôvâh êlôhîym instead. Bible proclaims God is Spirit. Do you know the ways of the Spirit of God? Are you so brazen to claim what he can do and not? That is insulting not to me but to another greater than us all.

God needs no heavenly court [which from evidence of scripture you quoted came after creation, and not before] to create as it is written - Genesis 1:1-3, “In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth. 2 The earth was without form and void, and darkness was over the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God was hovering over the face of the waters. 3 And God said, "Let there be light," and there was light." ESV

Hebrews 1:2-3, “but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. 3 He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power…”ESV

Another Important Point:

In the Bible account of Jesus in the wilderness, Luke 4:1-12, we have the devil attempting to tempt Jesus. The devil used approximately 95 words in this account as well as twice the number of scriptures Jesus used. The devil's tactics employed can be summed as follows: manipulation, that appeal to the flesh through enticing words that appeal to the intellect, verses 3-7, and weaving bible scriptures together in over abundance to lead one to destruction, verses 9-11', not life.

Therefore, should the standard used to measure bible truth be based solely on how many scriptures one can quote and enticing appeals to the human intellect? According to this standard then the devil was correct and Jesus was wrong for resisting temptation. This method uses the bible as slow poison — leading to ones destruction — not life. Promises liberty but producing death instead.

Jesus used approximately 49 words, far less than the devil. Yet, Jesus defeated the foe. How? Jesus simply stated in Luke 4:12, “And Jesus answered him, "It is written, 'You shall not put the Lord your God to the test."

Note Jesus stated - 'You shall not put the Lord your God to the test - not put the Lord Man to the test!

What is written is true: Philippians 2:5-11. 1 Timothy 3:16-17, 1 John 4:1-6.

Jesus was man and also God — that is the Messiah — God manifest in the flesh so we may look upon him and live and not perish. John 3:12-21. This is truly a work of God!

Your doctrine only sees a man as messiah. Jesus was both God and man — the true Messiah. That is how you tell to real from the false. No work of man — all God's Grace so no man/woman can boast. Your doctrine boast in man's work alone — not God's and only God can save — who then is Jesus?

Jeremiah 32:17.”'Ah, Lord GOD! It is you who have made the heavens and the earth by your great power and by your outstretched arm! Nothing is too hard for you…”ESV

Pierac and Fortigrun — your doctrine makes what is possible for God impossible. The bible does not state how angelic host were created. You cannot imply that these were with God in the Genesis account as God's very words would in essence make these creature hosts equal to God — not servants. The Bible is extremely specific that only God created man and no one else was involved with God in creation as it is written:

John 1:2-4, “He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. 4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men.” ESV

Who then is Jesus?
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Science is man's invention - creation is God's
(by B. W. Melvin)

Old Polish Proverb:
Not my Circus....not my monkeys
Fortigurn
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Fortigurn »

B. W. wrote:It states that only God created man — not with or along side any type of heavenly court. God alone created man - , “I even I, have made the earth, and created man upon it…” Scripture cannot be any plainer than that: “I even I
I agree with all that. I've made this point very clearly myself. The Bible says all things were created by one person, the Father.
Insults come in your condescending tones — mocking Christian Faith.
I'm sorry you think I'm being condescending. I'm not deliberately writing anything condescending. I'm not the one writing 'If you continue to try to twist scriptures to fit your doctrine'.
God alone made heaven and earth all the universe and man: there was no high heavenly courtly host helping God out.
I agree. I've already said this. It seems you're not reading what I write.
God the Father spoke to Son and Holy Spirit in the beginning and only He created man.
I believe that only the Father created man, but you haven't provided any evidence that the Father spoke to the Holy Spirit and the son.
There was no heavenly court or angels with him.
Proof please.
Why would God say — 'Let Us make… in Our Image and likeness' and say 'least man become like us knowing good and evil' if he was speaking to another creature he had made...
For the reasons already given. Please read them.
You doctrine attempts to use other scriptures that use a heavenly host to support your claims falls flat in a garbage heap because scripture does not support that a heavenly host, or angels, or creature was what God was speaking too in the Genesis account.
Just remember, these aren't only my claims, these are claims made by standard Evangelical commentators. Scripture does support the idea of God speaking to a heavenly host of angels, since it records this happening more than once.
Please note that 1 Kings 22:19-22 happened after Genesis not before and is not evidence that this court or heavenly host existed before or during Genesis account of creation.Job 1:6-12; 2:1-6 happened after Genesis not before and is not evidence that this court or host existed before or during Genesis account of creation. Isaiah, 6:1-8 happened after Genesis not before and is not evidence that this court or host existed before or during Genesis account of creation.
It is evidence that when God speaks in this way He refers to His heavenly court. The onus is on you to prove that this heavenly court did not exist earlier. By the way, Job 38:7 tells us plainly that the angels were right there, at creation.
Therefore, should the standard used to measure bible truth be based solely on how many scriptures one can quote and enticing appeals to the human intellect?
No, certainly not. I have no idea why you think this is relevant to the current issue under discussion.
Your doctrine only sees a man as messiah.
Since 'Messiah' means 'annointed', and since only men are recorded in the Bible as being annointed, it's clear that my doctrine is on solid ground. There are no passages speaking of God being annointed.

I've already explained several times who Jesus is, and you haven't responded once, so I'm not going to repeat myself.
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by YLTYLT »

Fortigurn wrote:You call that 'logical'? So now Jesus is the God of the Father and Holy Spirit, the Father is the God of Jesus and the Holy Spirit, and the Holy Spirit is the God of the Father and Jesus?
I REPEAT! It is logical in a sense that if God recognizes someone is equal to Him then this person would also be God.

You cannot compare our relationship to God to the Son's relationship to the Father.
Their relationship to each other is different than our relationship to Our God. Their relationship is perfect. Ours is flawed. Their relationship is eternal. Ours is only eternal in the future (if we are saved) but not eternal in the past. They have perfect continual communication with each other. We do not have that with God because of our Sin.

But man's logic is irrelevant. Scripture is the final determination.

Titus 1
3 But hath in due times manifested his word through preaching, which is committed unto me according to the commandment of God our Saviour; 4 To Titus, mine own son after the common faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ our Saviour.

Titus 2:13
Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

Titus 3:3-6
3 For we ourselves also were sometimes foolish, disobedient, deceived, serving divers lusts and pleasures, living in malice and envy, hateful, and hating one another.
4 But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared,
5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour

Paul most assuredly considered Jesus Christ God.
Titus 1:3 and 3:4 - Saviour = God
Titus 1:4 and 3:6 - Jesus Christ = Saviour

Titus 2:13 God = Saviour = Jesus Christ

From these 3 verses there is no ambiguity at all that could question that Jesus Christ = God.
I could see how you might argue against any one verse. But you are still not taking the whole of scripture into account.

And you cannot argue that in 2:13 that it is referring to both God the father and Jesus Christ, or else the verse would say we are waiting for both the Father and the son to appear. And we both know that the rest of scripture does not teach this in any way.
Last edited by YLTYLT on Wed Aug 22, 2007 3:16 pm, edited 1 time in total.
YLTYLT
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by YLTYLT »

Jesus was given authority. Why? because he is the Son of man. He did not have any authority of his own!

ESV Num 23:19 God is not man, that he should lie, or a son of man, that he should change his mind. Has he said, and will he not do it? Or has he spoken, and will he not fulfill it?

Here you have it, God is not a man or a son of man. Jesus is frequently called a man and frequently calls himself the son of man! Now who's twisting scripture? You don't believe this verse do you! No you don't and you also reject the verses that tell us Jesus was a man! Who's doing the twisting?

I understand you confusion here. But if you understand Jesus meaning he is not referring to Himself as the son of A man. He knows he was born of a virgin. The term "Son of Man" would not mean that he was the Son of a man. It might be better translated the Son of Humanity, but not just humanity in the way we understand it, but Perfect Humanity. Humanity in the way that God intended us to eventually be.
He, being the Son of God, was sent to the world to save men, which would make hin the Son of (or For) Man (or Humanity).
If Jesus is God, then how can He have a God as stated both before and after His resurrection? A simple answer is all I ask.

I am not sure there is a "simple" answer. but.... I might try a complex one.
I had already mentioned of course if God recognizes someone is equal to Him then this person would also be God.

The only time He uses the Term "My God", is during the last 3 hours on the cross. And at the end of these 3 hours. He says "it is finished".During these 3 hours He calls out to God asking why he had been fosaken. It was during these 3 hours that THe Holy spirit and the Father turned their back (so to speak) on the Son. It was the first time in all of eternity that they were not in continual communication and their relationship was not perfect.

Now there may be some here that disagree with this part even with my trinitarian friends:
But I believe that the eternal wages of our sin could not be paid for in just 3 hours. To pay for an eternal wage, something eternal had to give. I believe that the Son voluntarily gave up certain aspects of His eternal authority because of His love for humanity. Mind you, CHRIST never sacrificed His deity at Calvary, only certain aspects of His eternal authority.

I Corinthians 15:28
And when all things shall be subdued unto HIM, then shall the SON also himself be subject unto HIM that put all things under him, that GOD may be all in all.

Additinoally in reference to your understanding of Phil 2:6 , and i'll also indlude 7-9.

6 WHO, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a SERVANT, and was made in the likeness of men:
8 And being found in fashion as a man, HE humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted HIM, and given him a name which is above every name:


This word (being) is the Greek word (huparchon). It means “to exist or subsist” and denotes pre-existent deity (previous to His birth - Jn 1:2 and Colo 1:16-17). To know CHRIST is to know God (Jn 14:9).

This word (form) is the Greek word (morphe). It means “exact image or impress” and denotes the Divine nature or essence actually and inseparably subsisting in the Person of CHRIST. This word has no reference to the shape of a physical object, but instead refers to the expression of being. To give expression to the essence of deity implies the possession of deity. CHRIST is not merely like God; He is God

Up until the final moments on the cross when JESUS cried out, “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?” CHRIST had always been in total equality with the other two Persons of the Triune Godhead in every aspect . However, since the price tag for Hell was eternal, CHRIST (because of His love for humanity) was willing to surrender certain aspects of His eternal authority with the other two persons of Deity
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Fortigurn »

YLTYLT wrote:
Fortigurn wrote:You call that 'logical'? So now Jesus is the God of the Father and Holy Spirit, the Father is the God of Jesus and the Holy Spirit, and the Holy Spirit is the God of the Father and Jesus?
I REPEAT! It is logical in a sense that if God recognizes someone is equal to Him then this person would also be God.
Well no, not necessarily. If a king views me as his equal, that does not necessarily mean that I am also the king. But in any case, Christ made it clear that he is not equal with God, and so do the apostles.
You cannot compare our relationship to God to the Son's relationship to the Father. Their relationship to each other is different than our relationship to Our God. Their relationship is perfect. Ours is flawed. Their relationship is eternal. Ours is only eternal in the future (if we are saved) but not eternal in the past. They have perfect continual communication with each other. We do not have that with God because of our Sin.
None of this actually addresses anything I wrote.
But man's logic is irrelevant. Scripture is the final determination.
This is a flawed statement. Logic is important, and it's so important that you're actually appealing to it. You are appealing to a standard logical syllogism in order to argue for the trinity. But then you turn around and say that 'man's logic is irrelevant'. You can't have it both ways.
Titus 1
3 But hath in due times manifested his word through preaching, which is committed unto me according to the commandment of God our Saviour; 4 To Titus, mine own son after the common faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ our Saviour.

Titus 2:13
Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

Titus 3:3-6
3 For we ourselves also were sometimes foolish, disobedient, deceived, serving divers lusts and pleasures, living in malice and envy, hateful, and hating one another.
4 But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared,
5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour

Paul most assuredly considered Jesus Christ God.
Titus 1:3 and 3:4 - Saviour = God
Titus 1:4 and 3:6 - Jesus Christ = Saviour

Titus 2:13 God = Saviour = Jesus Christ

From these 3 verses there is no ambiguity at all that could question that Jesus Christ = God.
Actually there's far more ambiguity than you realise. First let's listen to Wallace:
Few today would take issue with Rudolf Bultmann's oft-quoted line that “In describing Christ as 'God' the New Testament still exercises great restraint.”

The list of passages which seem explicitly to identify Christ with God varies from scholar to scholar, but the number is almost never more than a half dozen or so.

As is well known, almost all of the texts are disputed as to their affirmation—due to textual or grammatical glitches—John 1:1 and 20:28 being the only two which are usually conceded without discussion.

Daniel Wallace, 'Sharp Redivivus? A Reexamination of the Granville Sharp Rule'
So out of the half a dozen verses you could use, only two are undisputed on textual or grammatical grounds. So let's look at what you've given me:

* Titus 1:3: Clearly distinguishes Jesus as separate from God. God is 'the Father' (not 'the Father, the son and the Holy Spirit'), and Jesus is 'the Christ'. Both are called 'our saviour', which is perfectly legitimate because both are involved in saving us. To claim that Jesus is God from this passage commits the logical fallacy of the undistributed middle.

* Titus 2:13: The reading you have given me is disputed on grammatical grounds, since the Greek can read 'God, and our saviour Jesus Christ'. If the odd verse containing grammatical ambiguity is all you can give me in support of the trinity, please pardon me for not being convinced.

* Titus 3:3-6: Again we find Jesus and God distinguished as separate. God is described as one person, who is a person other than Jesus. Both are called saviouwr, which is perfectly legitimate because both are involved in saving us. To claim that Jesus is God from this passage commits the logical fallacy of the undistributed middle.
I could see how you might argue against any one verse. But you are still not taking the whole of scripture into account.
On the contrary, I am taking the whole of Scripture into account. For a start, I'm looking at the Old Testament, which consistently teaches that God is one person. I don't know of any trinitarian at all who would dare say that the Jews believed in the trinity. Secondly, I'm looking at the teaching of the apostles - what they taught as gospel before they baptized people - and I'm seeing exactly the same (God is one person, Jesus is a man who is the son of God and the mediator between God and men). You on the other hand are picking out verses here and there and trying to overturn entire chapters of explicit Biblical teaching. You're trying to interpret the explicit with the inferred, rather than deriving the inferred from the explicit. That's Biblical exegesis backwards.
And you cannot argue that in 2:13 that it is referring to both God the father and Jesus Christ, or else the verse would say we are waiting for both the Father and the son to appear. And we both know that the rest of scripture does not teach this in any way.
I wouldn't argue that it refers to both God the Father and Jesus Christ.

So to finish, we still have no explanation for why the apostles didn't preach the trinity, and why when they taught people the gospel and baptized people, they always taught that Jesus is a man, not that he is God.

In his speech to the Jews on the day of Pentecost, the apostle Peter tells them that Jesus is a man attested by God:
Acts 2:
22 “Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man clearly attested to you by God with powerful deeds, wonders, and miraculous signs that God performed among you through him, just as you yourselves know—
23 this man, who was handed over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you executed by nailing him to a cross at the hands of Gentiles.
The apostle Peter taught that Jesus is a man, not God, or even a God, or even on the same level as God. Three thousand people were baptized into Christ that day, with the understanding that he was a man. True Christians therefore are baptized with the belief that Jesus is a man.

Note also that Peter distinguishes Christ from God, and says that Christ was a man through whom God worked, not that he was God who became man.

In his speech to the people after he had healed the lame mand, the apostle Peter tells them that Jesus was the fulfillment of the prophecy given by Moses, that God would send them a Messiah who was a man like them:
Acts 3:
22 Moses said, 'The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among your brothers. You must obey him in everything he tells you.
23 Every person who does not obey that prophet will be destroyed and thus removed from the people.'
Note that Peter tells the crowd that Jesus was a prophet like Moses, from among their brothers. He does not tell them that Jesus is God, or that he came down from heaven.

In his speech to a law court, the apostle Stephen likewise tells them that Jesus was the fulfillment of the prophecy given by Moses, that God would send them a Messiah who was a man like them:
Acts 7:
37 This is the Moses who said to the Israelites, 'God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among your brothers.
He uses the same quote as the apostle Peter had used, telling them that the prophet God would send (the Messiah), would be 'of your brethren, like unto me' - in other words, a man, a human being.

When he was in Athens, the apostle Paul was speaking to some people about who Jesus was. In his speech, he told them clearly that Jesus was a man who received authority from God:
Acts 17:
30 Therefore, although God has overlooked such times of ignorance, he now commands all people everywhere to repent,
31 because he has set a day on which he is going to judge the world in righteousness, by a man whom he designated, having provided proof to everyone by raising him from the dead.”
Here Paul says that Jesus is a man appointed by God to judge the world. Paul does not preach that Christ is God. He preaches that Christ is a man authorised by God, a man whom God has appointed.

In his first letter to Timothy, the apostle Paul says that there is one God, and that there is one mediator between God and men, and that is Jesus Christ, who he says is a man:
1 Timothy 2:
5 For there is one God and one intermediary between God and humanity, Christ Jesus, himself human,
6 who gave himself as a ransom for all, revealing God's purpose at his appointed time.
Here we have God on one side, and humans on the other. In between we have Christ - a man, not God.

It couldn't be any clearer. The apostles all taught time and time and time again that Jesus was a man at his birth, and was still a man after his resurrection and going to the Father.

Note also how the apostles repeatedly distinguished God and Christ from each other in their public preaching:
[Acts 2:
24 Whom God hath raised up, having loosed the pains of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it.

Acts 2:
32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.

Acts 3:
15 And killed the Prince of life, whom God hath raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses.

Acts 3:
26 Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities.

Acts 4:
10 Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole.

Acts 5:
30 The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree.

Acts 13:
33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.
Again and again we see it - God and Jesus, God and Christ, Jesus Christ whom God raised from the dead, God and His son Jesus. The two are clearly distinguished, and the term 'God' is used synonymously with the Father (not in the generic trinitarian sense of 'the triune godhead').
Fortigurn
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Re: More Trinity stuff

Post by Fortigurn »

YLTYLT wrote:But if you understand Jesus meaning he is not referring to Himself as the son of A man. He knows he was born of a virgin. The term "Son of Man" would not mean that he was the Son of a man. It might be better translated the Son of Humanity, but not just humanity in the way we understand it, but Perfect Humanity. Humanity in the way that God intended us to eventually be.
He, being the Son of God, was sent to the world to save men, which would make hin the Son of (or For) Man (or Humanity).
Evidence please that 'the son of man' means 'Perfect Humanity'.
The only time He uses the Term "My God", is during the last 3 hours on the cross.
No, he also uses it after the resurrection, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God' (John 20:27).
It was during these 3 hours that THe Holy spirit and the Father turned their back (so to speak) on the Son. It was the first time in all of eternity that they were not in continual communication and their relationship was not perfect.
Scripture please. Where are we told that 'It was during these 3 hours that THe Holy spirit and the Father turned their back (so to speak) on the Son'?
Now there may be some here that disagree with this part even with my trinitarian friends:
But I believe that the eternal wages of our sin could not be paid for in just 3 hours. To pay for an eternal wage, something eternal had to give. I believe that the Son voluntarily gave up certain aspects of His eternal authority because of His love for humanity.
Scripture please that Christ paid 'the eternal wages of our sin'. I agree that to pay an eternal wage would take more than three hours. Specifically, it would take eternity. But Christ was only dead for 3 days, meaning that he only paid three days of an eternal wage, according to your view. Of course, although you say 'something eternal had to give', in your view nothing eternal gave, because in your view only the physical body of Jesus died, whilst that which was eternal never even suffered, let alone died.

But the worst of what you say is that you make salvation a matter of a wage paid by Christ to God, whereas the apostles taught plainly that salvation is a free gift, not something purchased by a price.
Mind you, CHRIST never sacrificed His deity at Calvary, only certain aspects of His eternal authority.
Where does the Bible say this?
Additinoally in reference to your understanding of Phil 2:6 , and i'll also indlude 7-9.

6 WHO, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a SERVANT, and was made in the likeness of men:
8 And being found in fashion as a man, HE humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted HIM, and given him a name which is above every name:


This word (being) is the Greek word (huparchon). It means “to exist or subsist” and denotes pre-existent deity (previous to His birth - Jn 1:2 and Colo 1:16-17). To know CHRIST is to know God (Jn 14:9).
No, the Greek word hUPARXW does not denote 'pre-existent deity'. It simply means 'already existing'. You can't exist before you exist.
This word (form) is the Greek word (morphe). It means “exact image or impress” and denotes the Divine nature or essence actually and inseparably subsisting in the Person of CHRIST. This word has no reference to the shape of a physical object, but instead refers to the expression of being.
No, the Greek word MORFH does not 'denote the Divine nature or essence actually and inseparably subsisting in the Person of Christ'. I've never seen anyone get so much out of a single Greek word who wasn't a Catholic. You claim that the word 'has no reference to the shape of a physical object', when in fact that is exactly what it has reference to. Here's the entry in Liddell, Scott and Jones (9th edition), a standard lexicon:
A. form, shape, twice in Hom. (not in Hes.), soi d' epi men morphê epeôn thou hast comeliness of words, Od.11.367 (cf. Eust. ad loc.); so prob. allos men . . eidos akidnoteros pelei anêr, alla theos morphên epesi stephei God adds a crown of shapeliness to his words, Od.8.170: freq. later, morphas duo onomazein Parm.8.53 ; morphên allaxanta Emp.137.1 ; morphan brachus Pi.I.4(3).53 ; morphês metra shape and size, E.Alc.1063: periphr., morphês phusis A.Supp.496 ; morphês schêma, tupôma, E.Ion992, Ph.162; tên autên tou schêmatos morphên Arist.PA640b34 ; kai Gaia, pollôn onomatôn m. mia A.Pr.212 ; oneiratôn alinkioi morphaisin ib.449; nukterôn phantasmatôn echousi morphas Id.Fr.312 ; proupempsen anti philtatês m. spodon S.El.1159 ; of plants, Thphr.HP1.1.12 (pl.); esp. with ref. to beauty of form, huperphaton morphai Pi.O.9.65 ; hois potistaxêi charis euklea m. ib.6.76, cf. IG42 (1).121.119 (Epid., iv B. C.), LXX To.1.13, Vett.Val.1.6, etc.; sôma morphês emês OGI383.41 (Commagene, i B. C.); morphês eikonas ib.27; charaktêra morphês emês ib.60.

2. generally, form, fashion, appearance, A.Pr.78, S.Tr.699, El.199 (lyr.); outward form, opp. eidos, hekaterô tô eideos pollai m. Philol.5 ; allattonta to hautou eidos eis pollas morphas Pl.R.380d ; m. theôn X.Mem.4.3.13 , cf. Ep.Phil.2.6, Dam.Pr.304; hêrôôn eidea kai morphas A.R.4.1193 ; kata te morphas kai phônas gesticulations and cries, D.H.14.9; tên m. melanchrous, têi m. melichroas, in complexion, Ptol.Tetr.143, 144.

3. kind, sort, E. Ion 382, 1068 (lyr.), Pl.R.397c, etc. (Possibly cogn. with Lat. forma for morg[uglide]hmā, with f by dissimilation, cf. murmêx.)
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