Jesus needed to be baptised?

[CeT-To]

Why did Jesus need to be baptised? Matthew 3:13-15

I also herd from someone that when Jesus said Matt. 28:19 - "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." the sentence was changed, that instead of Father,Son & Holy Spirit it was Jesus instead. Any one know something about this and how it relates to the question about Jesus being baptised?

God bless!

[B. W.]

Why did Jesus need to be baptised? Matthew 3:13-15

I also herd from someone that when Jesus said Matt. 28:19 - "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." the sentence was changed, that instead of Father,Son & Holy Spirit it was Jesus instead. Any one know something about this and how it relates to the question about Jesus being baptised?

God bless!

This passage helps explains why:

Exodus 40:12, 13, "Then you shall bring Aaron and his sons to the door of the tabernacle of meeting and wash them with water. 13 You shall put the holy garments on Aaron, and anoint him and consecrate him, that he may minister to Me as priest." NKJV

It was fitting for Jesus to be consecrated by the Mikvah cleansing so he could be properly anointed (Matt 3:16c) according to the standards set forth by Moses in Exodus 40:12-13c. In this manner, Jesus, could be properly consecrated as the High Priest of the New Covenant, properly anointed to complete the task assigned for Him, and et al.

Now notice this passage from Hebrews

Hebrews 2:17, 18c, "Therefore, in all things He had to be made like His brethren, that He might be a merciful and faithful High Priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. 18 For in that He Himself has suffered, being tempted, He is able to aid those who are tempted."NKJV

Then what happened next after Jesus was Baptized? For answer see - Matthew 4:1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 8, 9, 10, 11c?

Speaking of Jesus further into the book of Hebrews in Heb 5:6, "...As He also says in another place: "YOU ARE A PRIEST FOREVER ACCORDING TO THE ORDER OF MELCHIZEDEK"

Therefore it was fitting for Jesus to be consecrated as the High Priest of the New Covenant (Jer 31:31). Jesus' Baptism was not for his personal remission of sin, because he had none, but rather consecration and anointing for duty.

Now notice again - Exodus 40:12, 13, "Then you shall bring Aaron and his sons to the door of the tabernacle of meeting and wash them with water. 13 You shall put the holy garments on Aaron, and anoint him and consecrate him, that he may minister to Me as priest." NKJV

Notice how it says So that Aaron and his sons…

The notice how the bible teaches that we, believers, are called both men and women, sons of God too thru Christ our High Priest's work; therefore, the Matthew 28:19 Baptism is for what? Our cleansing and clothing and anointing for what? Notice – Father – cleansing so we can one day see him and live, clothed in Christ (New Body), anointed by the Holy Spirit so we can make others disciples and priests of the New Covenant of Grace.

Read 1 Peter 2:9 to find out verification…
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[B. W.]

As for second part of your question:

Act 2:38 - “Then Peter said to them, "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.” NKJV

Notice – remission of sins is so we can live in God’s presence and see him someday (Rev 21:27 and Rev 22:5 gives a few clues on this). Next, Gift of the Holy Spirit refers to several things and I mentions a few here as – sealing to be his and empowered to be changed out of darkness into his light.

The word Name – refers to one’s Character/Nature.

Baptize merely means – placed into something and in this case – His Name and Water for full Mikvah cleansing and anointing; thus keeping in cynic with the words of Jesus in Matt 28:19c.

Be baptized into the full character and nature of Christ for the remission of sins – receiving new clothes (future body), so you can minister before God under his sealed transforming anointing.

If someone says, be Baptized under Jesus name - go for it – if another says no you need the rote of Matt 28:19 – go for it. Get Baptized in water for cleansing, your future new clothes, and anointing for duty to live the Christian walk, maturing, and making fellow disciples for Christ – (not disciples of yourself or an Church organization).

Neither side of this Baptism debate really understands what Jesus was implying in Matt 28:19 and Peter meant in Acts 2:38. I see a little but even the little I see and share does not contain all what Jesus implied in Matthew 28:18. Some debate Matt 28:19 was added in later - I don't think so - it has a message too profound...
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[jlay]

Act 2:38 - “Then Peter said to them, "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.” NKJV

Many assume this means, get baptized in water, 'in the name of Christ,' and then your sins will be remitted.

But John said, "I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me will come one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not fit to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire." Remember that repenting doesn't remit anything. It is only our response (changing of the mind) towards God, so we can receive what He has already gifted.

One problem we have is assuming that everytime the word baptize comes up, everyone wants to shout, "water!!" In fact many denominations tie salvation to the ceremony of water baptism. Is this what Peter was saying in Acts 2? I think he is literally saying be baptized IN THE NAME of JESUS CHRIST. Not, "get baptized in some water, and have someone proclaim 'in the name of Jesus' over you, and then you will receive the Holy Spirit."
And so, people assume that water baptism has some supernatural effect to 'wash' away sins. And thus confuse Jesus' water baptism as a 'sinners' baptism.

As BW pointed out, Jesus went through the ceremonial waters of baptism, and referenced the Mizpah. Remember also that Jesus, "tasted death for every man." And I can't help but wonder if this didn't represent some preparation of the sacrificial lamb. Definately a confirmation of His earthly minsitry based on what happens immediately following His rising from the water.

We must understand the symbolic way that water is used in the scritpures. For example: "to make her holy, cleansing her (the church) by the washing with water through the word," Eph 5:26
The 'word' of God is often symbolized as water. "Whoever believes in me, as the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’” John 7:38
The scripture as Jesus says. Isaiah has quite a few references to spiritual water. (Isaiah 12:3)
And of course the water Jesus referred to with the woman at the well.

[csaliba]

Act 2:38 - “Then Peter said to them, "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.” NKJV

Many assume this means, get baptized in water, 'in the name of Christ,' and then your sins will be remitted.

But John said, "I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me will come one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not fit to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire." Remember that repenting doesn't remit anything. It is only our response (changing of the mind) towards God, so we can receive what He has already gifted.

One problem we have is assuming that everytime the word baptize comes up, everyone wants to shout, "water!!" In fact many denominations tie salvation to the ceremony of water baptism. Is this what Peter was saying in Acts 2? I think he is literally saying be baptized IN THE NAME of JESUS CHRIST. Not, "get baptized in some water, and have someone proclaim 'in the name of Jesus' over you, and then you will receive the Holy Spirit."
And so, people assume that water baptism has some supernatural effect to 'wash' away sins. And thus confuse Jesus' water baptism as a 'sinners' baptism

As BW pointed out, Jesus went through the ceremonial waters of baptism, and referenced the Mizpah. Remember also that Jesus, "tasted death for every man." And I can't help but wonder if this didn't represent some preparation of the sacrificial lamb. Definately a confirmation of His earthly minsitry based on what happens immediately following His rising from the water.

We must understand the symbolic way that water is used in the scritpures. For example: "to make her holy, cleansing her (the church) by the washing with water through the word," Eph 5:26
The 'word' of God is often symbolized as water. "Whoever believes in me, as the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’” John 7:38
The scripture as Jesus says. Isaiah has quite a few references to spiritual water. (Isaiah 12:3)
And of course the water Jesus referred to with the woman at the well.

Through Jesus baptism, a mysterious action occurred,and this is confirmed,first through Jesus Himself, in Matthew 3:14:15

14 But John stayed him, saying: I ought to be baptized by thee, and comest thou to me? 15 And Jesus answering, said to him: Suffer it to be so now. For so it becometh us to fulfill all justice. Then he suffered him.

Then in Mark 3:27

Mark 3:27 No man can enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he will first bind the strong man; and then he will spoil his house.

Now we should meditate deeply and pray the Holy Spirit to gives us light in order to comprehend.
In Matthew, Jesus told John to commit himself and suffer in order to for them to fulfil ALL JUSTICE. This meant that it was Jesus turn now to do so,because Satan had been using the excuse of justice in order to kill humans after they commit evil acts ,and acquire souls, for 4000 years.

Rev:12:10 And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, Now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of his Christ: for the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night.

Therefore Jesus through His baptism, He locked Satan temporary in hell ,first to show him that He is in power now, also to be able to commit all those miracles and cast out devils, and the most important is that from that moment on Jesus removed Satan's spirit automatic possession of humanity since Adam.This is confirmed in Mark 3:27

Therefore the water baptism is not that important because Jesus through his baptism fulfilled it for all humanity and sealed it through His death since He is the creator.
Luke 12: 50 But I have a baptism to be baptized with; and how am I straitened till it be accomplished!

The placing of the hands and the words of The Father,the Son and the Holy Spirit are sufficient, because the words are spirit, not the water,and Jesus baptised us by the spirit and fire. John's baptism was temporary to prepare the people for Jesus' mission.

God bless

[neo-x]

The placing of the hands and the words of The Father,the Son and the Holy Spirit are sufficient, because the words are spirit, not the water,and Jesus baptised us by the spirit and fire. John's baptism was temporary to prepare the people for Jesus' mission.

I think it will work just fine, btw it would not be bad to have water cuz ultimately it is how it was done, not that the water is important or something but I think it fulfills the symbolism. If I follow this line of thought than would there be no need for holy communion either, I mean I can remember Jesus in my heart, his crucification and atonement, why would I need to do it with bread and wine or whatever?

[csaliba]

The placing of the hands and the words of The Father,the Son and the Holy Spirit are sufficient, because the words are spirit, not the water,and Jesus baptised us by the spirit and fire. John's baptism was temporary to prepare the people for Jesus' mission.

I think it will work just fine, btw it would not be bad to have water cuz ultimately it is how it was done, not that the water is important or something but I think it fulfills the symbolism. If I follow this line of thought than would there be no need for holy communion either, I mean I can remember Jesus in my heart, his crucification and atonement, why would I need to do it with bread and wine or whatever?

I am afraid that is not what Jesus meant regarding the eating my flesh and drinking my blood. I did a lot of reflection and meditations apart of the rest, why Jesus wanted to do this. I will try to be concise but it is very difficult when one goes into fundamental details.
If we go back to Genesis, after the sin, Adam had to work hard the land to feed himself. Through this action there was one of the most mysterious and significant process. Through work a person uses energy ,through that energy the evil elements of the spirit within both the blood and the soul will be burnt, and evaporates through the body. The reason therefore, that Adam had to work was both to live within the flesh and in the same time purify his soul in the Blood. The drawback Adam had though, that since through sin ,even the nature was corrupted, He was not advancing with regard to purification of his soul for the simple reason that He was eating filthy food as well.2Kings 4:40. This caused humans to become even worst then Adam,with the exception of those who were born through the Holy Spirit,lie Seth,Enoch,Noah,Abraham,and the rest, Satan and his demons, from the other hand were doing their Job through manipulation of humans, since they knew that humans were vulnerable. This was really the kingdom of Satan in full force, and he was grabbing souls in millions through the excuse of Justice,those who commit sins must be killed, one of the new principals which he himself established. For God, this in a way meant nothing since the flesh belonged to Satan, and also the soul from generation to generation would eventually purify themselves,simply a longer process and more patience which for God it's His virtue. So through Satan justified justice, there was the flood to destroy all humans and start all over again for purification. God instructed humans that they could eat meat now for the simple reason that all animals now were clean.One step forward. But general particular orders were established after Moses gave freedom to God's people. These as we all know, were the famous 600 laws which increased sins by thousands, and thousands, and Satan was again within his kingdom grabbing souls,back to square one. Satan was convinced that the son of God will never be able to be born and redeem humanity in such an evil filthy body. Here I have to stop, regarding the redeeming of humanity since it is long and complicated, it will be explained in due course. God was about to destroy humanity again,and build a new race through Moses ,but Moses stopped him, even this needs quite a long explanation, but not for now. So humans were really in a bad state and only Jesus was their only hope. Jesus came and as I explained in the other post the first thing Jesus did was, to get rid of Satan spirit through baptism within Humans. Afterwards, He started doing all those miracles and two significant miracles were the Cana, turning the water into wine, and the feeding of the 5000 through five loaves. Through these miracles, Jesus made it clear that immediately from after his death, with the power of the Holy Spirit, all nature would be purified from Satan spirit, and replaced by His spirit.
John 13:32 If God be glorified in him, God also will glorify him in himself; and immediately will he glorify him.
Here we come to our point. Jesus with those miracles signified, that all nature would be reborn within His spirit as creator, and all food no matter what, would be clean and could be eaten for purification. Only then Jesus could He establishes the Eucharist,in the bread to be His flesh and in the wine to be His blood in order for us to be purified within our soul. Practically all food,and all what has life within itself,symbolically represent His flesh, since it was created all by Him all in Him, and all for Him. The whole of creation is within Jesus Spirit believe it or not, the sacrifice of the Son of God in Nature, the first born of every creature! That,s Why in the old testament they couldn't use any kind of material as god and adore it because it was representing Satan.
The moment Jesus died all nature was disturbed, and people came back to life, this happened by the Father to show His appreciation, love and Justice, in order for His Son to be buried within a new virgin mother earth, so He was both born and buried within a virgin mother.
God Bless

[neo-x]

While I appreciate the way you have put up a rather detailed post for what you believe, I do not agree with it. I do understand that everything changed when Christ was crucified but nonetheless the bread and wine was not for the purpose of consecrating/purifying all food. This argument has no biblical support. you have tried to create a link between these two but I am afraid there is a straight cut explanation for it in the scripture that it was to be in Christ's remembrance and whosoever partakes in it is part of him. As to the question why Christ did it, if I agree with you then there is no meaning for me to have a part of his bread and wine today because if it was to purify food than there is no reason for me to do it today. I can do the same thing with prayer. However i do not think this view has context within what you are trying to say. Food has nothing to do with it.

Jesus came and as I explained in the other post the first thing Jesus did was, to get rid of Satan spirit through baptism within Humans.

Well there is no Satan spirit by default in everybody.

Practically all food,and all what has life within itself,symbolically represent His flesh, since it was created all by Him all in Him, and all for Him.

You are arguing for a supposition which you are concluding out of the same statement. This is a logical fallacy.

All life was created by him thats for sure but it is not a valid argument for linking Eucharist to food. Since all life is in question it could attribute to anything.

Then it would also include minerals the earth has, iron, uranium, platinum, aren't those part of his flesh because he made them. And please I am not trying to put absurd statements here, but wouldn't you agree with me that if he created them then by your argument it does represent his flesh.

The moment Jesus died all nature was disturbed, and people came back to life, this happened by the Father to show His appreciation, love and Justice, in order for His Son to be buried within a new virgin mother earth, so He was both born and buried within a virgin mother.

Again you are supposing a lot, there is no scriptual support for this, first where does the Bible makes earth a virgin mother and why would he put Jesus inside a virgin mother at his death. I am sorry but this is far twisted and turned from the Bible.

[csaliba]

All life was created by him thats for sure but it is not a valid argument for linking Eucharist to food. Since all life is in question it could attribute to anything.

Then it would also include minerals the earth has, iron, uranium, platinum, aren't those part of his flesh because he made them. And please I am not trying to put absurd statements here, but wouldn't you agree with me that if he created them then by your argument it does represent his flesh.

The moment Jesus died all nature was disturbed, and people came back to life, this happened by the Father to show His appreciation, love and Justice, in order for His Son to be buried within a new virgin mother earth, so He was both born and buried within a virgin mother.

Again you are supposing a lot, there is no scriptual support for this, first where does the Bible makes earth a virgin mother and why would he put Jesus inside a virgin mother at his death. I am sorry but this is far twisted and turned from the Bible.[/quote]

While I appreciate the way you have put up a rather detailed post for what you believe, I do not agree with it. I do understand that everything changed when Christ was crucified but nonetheless the bread and wine was not for the purpose of consecrating/purifying all food. This argument has no biblical support. you have tried to create a link between these two but I am afraid there is a straight cut explanation for it in the scripture that it was to be in Christ's remembrance and whosoever partakes in it is part of him. As to the question why Christ did it, if I agree with you then there is no meaning for me to have a part of his bread and wine today because if it was to purify food than there is no reason for me to do it today. I can do the same thing with prayer. However i do not think this view has context within what you are trying to say. Food has nothing to do with it.

Jesus came and as I explained in the other post the first thing Jesus did was, to get rid of Satan spirit through baptism within Humans.

Well there is no Satan spirit by default in everybody.

Practically all food,and all what has life within itself,symbolically represent His flesh, since it was created all by Him all in Him, and all for Him.

You are arguing for a supposition which you are concluding out of the same statement. This is a logical fallacy.


[Your quote] the bread and wine was not for the purpose of consecrating/purification all food.

Misunderstanding. I feel that you rushed to conclusions. This what I quoted [First I quoted: Through these miracles, Jesus made it clear that immediately after his death, with the power of the Holy Spirit, all nature would be purified from Satan spirit, and replaced by His spirit. The second part of the process for purification.

So His death was the purpose for the purification of all nature through the elimination of Satan spirit. Otherwise there wouldn’t be salvation. We were saved through the elimination of Satan spirit.So all (nature)also food was purified through His death. That’s where John 13:32 comes in this to proof that Jesus, immediately after his death will be glorified.
John 13:32 If God be glorified in him, God also will glorify him in himself; and immediately will he glorify him. Now read how clear it is in: John 6:26:34, and 6:52:58.especially 6:55 For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed

When we reflect on all John 6, we realize that this chapter is dedicated on the real bread from Heaven,and I would suggest to meditate in debt and you will agree with me that Jesus as God knew what we really need since we are irresistible to both the world and the flesh.

Now I would like to make you conscious the revelation in Matthew 6:11,in the words: Give us this day our super substantial bread, which when we refer to interlinear we discover this: 1967. Epiousios: Short Definition: for the morrow, necessary, sufficient.

So necessary, sufficient for the following day, why it is not immediately as it is eaten that a person will benefit from? To me it is obvious because it must pass through the digestive process, so it is definitely referring to food when it is not consecrated, because Jesus knew that spiritually taken it will not last since we are irresistible to the world and flesh,or even taken undeservedly, Like Paul said in 1 Corinthians 11:17.

Therefore, It is not the bread and wine, the purpose of consecrating/purification all food. I never mentioned the word consecration, you did. I said that:
Only then Jesus could He establishes the Eucharist through the bread to be His flesh and the wine to be His blood in order for us to be purified within our souls. This Jesus did because He knew that on our own we are not capable to be purified, and since His spirit is within all the living nature, that which has life, automatically without being aware of we purify ourselves, because all food has life.
Matthew 4:4 4Jesus answered, “It is written: ‘Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.’ So bread after all is not only bread but has Jesus spirit in it. Since the word of God is spirit.

So unless Jesus dies on the cross and eliminates Satan’s spirit from nature, he wouldn’t be able to establish the bread from heaven through His spirit which is within all nature, (the spirit not the bread is within all nature) there forever. The covenant which lasts forever .It is important to be aware that it was done so, to fulfil scripture when Melchizedek met Abraham and offered bread and wine as an Eucharist( which means giving thanks) not animal sacrifice, and became the priest according to the order of Melchizedek.
Hebrews 5:6 and Genesis 14: 18 And Melchizedek king of Salem brought out bread and wine; now he was a priest of God Most High.

[your quote: Well there is no Satan spirit by default in everybody]


Again you rushed to conclusions: You didn’t read my previous post. This is what I quoted:
Therefore Jesus through His baptism, He locked Satan temporary in hell, first to show him that He is in power from that moment on, also to be able to commit all those miracles and to cast out devils, and the most important was, that from that moment on, Jesus removes Satan's spirit automatic possession of humanity since Adam. This is confirmed in Mark 3:27


So he was for 4000 years, but Jesus removed him through His baptism. On this day I have begotten you. Hebrews 5:5 No one was allowed to go to heaven for the simple reason that souls where still filthy through birth even if they were pure people.because of Satan's spirit automatic possession of humanity since Adam. The act of sex in itself is corrupted and spiritually dead in Satan, if it’s not within a spiritual marriage, in order to be alive in Christ.)That's why Jesus had to be born from a virgin.I could expand on this but I will in due coarse.

Now to confirm that we were by nature children of wrath(Satan)before Christ death read Ephesians 2:1And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, 2in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience. 3Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath,,(Satan) even as the rest.

[you quote]This is a logical fallacy.

Again you rushed to conclusions: My words are: symbolically represent His flesh .
You already forgot that it must be consecrated, but all what has a kind of life within itself is alive within His spirit, because before although they were alive in fact they were dead in the spirit. Ephesians 2 :1 also He said let the dead bury the dead, He also said I am Life.

[your quote: Then it would also include minerals the earth has, iron, uranium, platinum, etc...]

Again you rushed to conclusions: wherever there is life there is Jesus spirit, He is life, wherever there is no life there is Satan spirit and his demons,locked and not functional, but through an eruption as lava Ezekiel 28:12:18,and through all manufacturing of these materials, spirits will escape and remain within this world in the air to afflict us. Ephesians 2:2

[your quote: again you are supposing a lot, there is no scriptural support for this, first where does the bible makes earth a virgin mother and why would he put Jesus inside a virgin mother at his death. I am sorry but this is far twisted and turned from the bible.]

Again you rushed to conclusions: Why were you so anxious to answer my post and you didn’t do some reflections and references within the bible. This is regarding what happened on His death, as proof that He gave life to the dead holy people, and to earth.
Matthew 27: 50And when Jesus had cried out again in a loud voice, he gave up his spirit.51At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook and the rocks split. 52The tombs broke open and the bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life. 53They came out of the tombs, and after Jesus’ resurrection they went into the holy city and appeared to many people.Jesus spirit was established,and the curtain of the temple, where before no one could enter because it was a mystery, simply humans were unaware that the previous spirit was Satan’s veiled as god within nature, and Jesus was hidden, John 10:1:6 incarnated within Satan's soul,That's why Jesus became so sinful before His death, but now through His death on the cross he is terminated, and everybody from then on will be aware that there’s only one Spirit within nature and obviously within humans, which belongs to Jesus, the Son of God,through the Holy Spirit sent from the Father by the Son.

Now with regard to the rest of you quote: “first where does the bible makes earth a virgin mother etc. etc....”

First it is vitally important to be aware that Jesus was a spiritual person representing God’s figure. The first Adam was a living soul and sinned and returned to dust within the mother earth where he came from,(That’s why it is called mother earth) and the earth as I quoted, through sin became also filthy. So the world spiritually for 4000 thousand years was in the worst condition ever through Satan’s spirit. Now Jesus the second Adam is a life giving spirit so immediately on His death all nature was reborn within Jesus spirit, therefore Jesus gave the world a new life, she was reborn, and also a virgin since there was no sin or any stain, spiritually speaking, without Satan spirit. So justly for Jesus as her saviour, who gave her life, to be buried in a new tomb within a new born earth, and also to be the first, since He is the first born of every creature! Only He deserves this, no man was capable of achieving this, the Son of God and the Son of man, even becoming the last most sinful person, and the first to reborn with a new spiritual flesh ever, for our sake in order to save us.

God bless