The problem that is apparent is your difficulty with the Biblical concept of regretting your sins (sorrow for breaking God's law), and turning around (repenting and committing to become obedient), and walking the other way (which logically means living by God's word including His commands).
I have absolutely no problem with the concept of being sorry for my sins and that sorrow prompting me to repent. I have a problem with saying that is necessary for eschatological salvation when the Bible doesn't say it is. What the Bible DOES say repentance is necessary for is deliverance from judgment. 2 Cor. 7:8-10 and Rev. 2:4-5, among other passages demonstrate this beautifully.
You attempt to re-interpret the Scriptures and the meaning of words to support your view in every case in our discussion.
No, sir. I simply take the Scriptures to mean what they say. If you have a problem with my exegesis, point it out. Until then, I stand by my interpretations. In fact, if we are going to start challenging like this, then I again bring up my question asked previously. If you can't answer, or refuse to, then I will take it as a full concession to my position:
"Now, if these people were already saved, as these previous two verses prove, then how did their repentance at this letter lead them to salvation?"
I can answer that easily. If, though, salvation must refer to eschatological salvation, as it does for you, we have a serious problem.
Repent is precisely what we must all do daily, for we who strive to live by every word of God (Matt. 4:4) still make mistakes and commit sin and thus require forgiveness. Thus, repentance is not a one-time act but part of the process of continual conversion we must go through as we are led out of Egypt (sin), through the wilderness (this present evil age), and towards the promised land (the Kingdom of God by means of the first resurrection).
Repentance is directly tied to progressive sanctification. I do not doubt this at all, and I would strongly advocate such a position. However, progressive sanctification is not the same as positional sanctification and/or justification.
In all this, I am STILL waiting on a passage that tells me that repentance from sin is necessary for eschatological salvation.
There are sins that cannot be forgiven and these are the ones we do not repent of. Sinners will not inherit the Kingdom of God (1 Cor. 6:9-10, Gal. 5:19-26).
We've already covered this, R7, and you didn't deal with my reply last time. Rather than re-explain my position, I'll just quote myself.
I wrote:- Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God. And such were some of you. But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God (1 Cor. 6:9-11, NKJV).
Ah, I see. So, not only must I repent, but if I ever commit a single sin . . . let's say I covet something . . . well, apparently I have lost my salvation. Because, after all, I have coveted, and those who covet "will not inherit the kingdom of God."
OK, so if that isn't what the verse means, then what is it? Well, there are two possibilities. The first has to do with the word "inherit." You will notice that these verses nowhere speak of condemnation. There is little doubt that our inheritance in heaven can be lost, for as 1 Corinthians 3:15 says, "If any man's work is burned up, he will suffer loss; but he himself will be saved, yet so as through fire." (NASB) And we are told by Jesus that we can store up treasures in Heaven (Matt. 6:20), so it follows that some will have greater rewards than others. Given this, if a Christian continues in the activities listed, then Paul says he will not inherit the kingdom, neither his rewards nor his authority.
The other possibility lies in the realm of identity. Notice that Paul says "And such were some of you." Some of these people could have been put in that list. But, no longer. Now, unless you believe one can lose his salvation, why the warning against going back? And it is obvious that this passage is a warning, for it is in the middle of a series of rebukes. They were dragging one another before the courts and falling back into sexual sin. But, even if one did commit adultery, he was not an adulterer. Paul recognized a basic truth in himself that he still sinned, but when he sinned, it was not he who was doing it, but the sin in him (Romans 7:21-25). Further, the New Man CANNOT sin (1 John 3:6, 9 . . . the "continue to" in most translations is not in the Greek. It should be rendered in the present static, as the KJV rightly does). It is not in his nature. Therefore, Paul makes the exhortations to the Corinthians:
- Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ himself? Shall I then take the members of Christ and unite them with a prostitute? Never! (1 Cor. 6:15, NIV)
Flee from sexual immorality. All other sins a man commits are outside his body, but he who sins sexually sins against his own body. (1 Cor. 6:18, NIV)
Thus, we see that Paul is telling this Church not to go back to the sin that they were saved from, not because it would deny them of their salvation, but because as members of the body of Christ, it was a disgraceful thing! (See also Romans 6:1-14).
As to these sins not being forgiven, I refer you to the Lordship vs. Free Grace thread. I've fully laid out my position there.
Now, to deal with your three verses . . . by the way, are you going to keep doing this? Are you going to keep throwing up a verse and me showing why it doesn't support your position so you instead run to another? I mean, in all of this, you haven't shown ONE verse that directly links eschatological salvation with repentance. I could refuse to deal with the next three verses on those grounds alone, but I would rather show why they support me . . . anyway.
- Now we know that God does not hear sinners; but if anyone is a worshiper of God and does His will, He hears him (John 9:31, NKJV).
There are several things we can say about this verse. First of all, I can claim it isn't even true, because it isn't an assertion from the Bible. This is a narrative account where the blind man is talking with the Pharisees. Although, I suppose you could go to Job and find the lies of Zophar and build doctrine on them . . .
But, I do take it as a true statement. We can admit it into evidence
. So, show me how this has to do with salvation. Surely you do not believe that you first must be a godly person for God to hear your prayer for salvation. Why, if you do, you and Paul will have a few problems, for he said: "However, to the man who does not work but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness." (Rom. 4:4, NIV). So, if God doesn't hear the prayers of the ungodly, but it is the ungodly who are justified, then it follows that God's hearing your prayers have nothing to do with salvation . . . or maybe, again R7--
CONTEXT, the blind man was talking about Jesus' ability to communicate with God and do miracles. God listened to Him ON A DAILY BASIS. Well, in this case, the ungodly would be those who are sinners. They haven't repented. So, if a man--CHRISTIAN OR NOT--does not repent, then God doesn't listen to him. Good lesson for the Christian, don't you think? It's probably one the Church needs today. In fact, that might explain an awful lot about why so many of our prayers go unanswered these days . . . of course, in your view, we can't hold to that, because God hears all Christians all the time. Hmm . . .
- One who turns away his ear from hearing the law, Even his prayer is an abomination (Prov. 28:9, NKJV)
And this has to do with salvation how? Yet again, this teaches exactly the same lesson as above, which is probably why you mentioned it. Let's keep in mind that this is a proverb. It was written to the Jewish people. They were covenant people, but they were not saved by the Law. So, that means that turning from the Law did not condemn a man. If that's true, then, again, this has no reference at all to eschatological salvation. But what does it deal with? How about the same thing as the rest of Proverbs: living a
godly life, which, of course, begins with repentance. Repentance is necessary for blessings, but it is not at all necessary for salvation. I'm still waiting on a passage that says it is.
- But we know that the law is good if one uses it lawfully, 9knowing this: that the law is not made for a righteous person, but for the lawless and insubordinate, for the ungodly and for sinners, for the unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, 10for fornicators, for sodomites, for kidnappers, for liars, for perjurers, and if there is any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine, 11according to the glorious gospel of the blessed God which was committed to my trust (1 Tim. 1:8-11, NKJV).
Hmm . . . I don't see the word "repent" or the word "save" or any of their derivatives anywhere in this passage. We find this in a passage relating to false teachers. They wanted to teach the Law--Judaizers, most likely. They believed that you had to keep the law to be saved, but Paul is saying that the Law is not for them. It is not for Christians (see my previous quotation as it relates to identity).
Use whatever translation you fancy for Matthew 9:13. You have still to answer the question.
Ah, I thought I did. Well, let's not be skimpy . . . let's use the NASB, NIV, and ESV:
- But go and learn what this means: 'I desire mercy, not sacrifice.' For I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners." (NIV)
"But go and learn what this means: 'I DESIRE COMPASSION, AND NOT SACRIFICE,' for I did not come to call the righteous, but sinners." (NASB)
Go and learn what this means, 'I desire mercy, and not sacrifice.' For I came not to call the righteous, but sinners." (ESV)
Well, the quote comes from Hos. 6:6, in which God is angry with Israel for keeping the letter of the Law but not serving Him in faith. So, Jesus says He has not come to call the righteous. Can you hear the sarcasm? There are NONE who are righteous, but many who thought they were. These are the ones who offered sacrifice but not compassion. Jesus came for the sinners . . . those who recognized their condition. And what does Jesus want? Obviously, He wants the same thing He wanted when He inspired Hosea to pen the words then: faith. Period.
Too bad that the word "repentance" isn't by Jesus. He is NOT calling them to repentance for salvation. He is calling them to faith in Him, something "the righteous" would never do.
Now, R7, I've answered your questions. Time for you to answer some of mine.
Do you have a single Scripture that says "Repentance is necessary for eschatological salvation"? I have provided some thirty verses that say "Faith is necessary for eschatological salvation." Can you give me ONE that does the same for repentance?
If not, are you not convicted on the grounds of Gal. 1:8-9 of teaching a false gospel?
Why does John, who writes expressly for the purpose of bringing people to a saving relationship with Jesus Christ (John 20:30-31) never use the word "repent", much less tie it to salvation?
Can a person be saved if the only part of the Bible they have is the Gospel of John?
If genuine belief necessarily results in repentance, why did Paul encourage the Christians at Corinth to repent? (I was going to reference that, but hey . . . read all of both the epistles).
I suppose that will suffice for now.
God bless