Posted: Thu Mar 09, 2006 12:56 pm
Wow Jac. Your theology is a mess. Let's talk about heresy, since you bring it up.
Where does your faith come from Jac? Is it something meritorious that you concocted of your own resources, your small contribution to your salvation? If so, then you have a right to boast. You were able to come up with this faith all by yourself, whereas your unbelieving neighbor wasn't skilled enough to pull this off, since “not all have faith” (2 Thessalonians 3:2). If not, then where did it come from? The ability to believe is itself granted to us by God. (Philippians 1:29). The Bible is clear that our flesh profits nothing; that a man must be born of the Spirit BEFORE he can even see the kingdom of God, let alone enter it. (John 3:3)
I have also dealt with the verses that command belief, Jac. I've made it clear that permission and ability are two different things. All men MAY come, but no man CAN come. I can give you permission to flap your arms and fly to the moon. Does that mean that you have the ability to do it? God gave Pharoah a commandment, and then proceeded to harden his heart, that he would not obey it. More on that later.
I have thoroughly refuted your arguments with scripture, but you refuse to listen. What you call “exegesis” is really just trying to “explain away”. For example, in your irresponsible dealings with Rev. 20:11-15, you claim that, “a person's sins are never mentioned in this passage. What is a man condemned for? Is it his sin? By God, I say no. A person is condemned for not being found in the Book of Life. This means that he is dead in his sins. You see, he is not condemned for his sins, but for his death—that is, for his lack of life”. You claim this despite the fact that this passage clearly states that they are "judged according to their works (sin)". You also ignore the clear teaching that it is SIN that causes us to be blotted out of the Book of Life (Exodus 32:33).
You claim that “I do not hold that Christ's work on the cross was to save everyone, but to make atonement for all sin.” Christ work on the cross was to “secure eternal redemption” (Hebrews 9:12). For whom did He do this? HIS People. He came to “save HIS people from their sins” (Matthew 1:21).
Isaiah 53:11-12
“He shall see the labor of His soul,and be satisfied.
By His knowledge My righteous Servant shall justify many,
For He shall bear their iniquities.
Therefore I will divide Him a portion with the great,
And He shall divide the spoil with the strong,
Because He poured out His soul unto death,
And He was numbered with the transgressors,
And He bore the sin of many,
And made intercession for the transgressors.”
If Christ atoned for ALL sin, then how can those in Revelation 20 be judged according to their works? On what basis does anyone to Hell? As Charles Spurgeon correctly observed, "He has punished Christ, why should He punish twice for one offence? Christ has died for all His people's sins, and if thou art in the covenant, thou art one of Christ's people. Damned thou canst not be. Suffer for thy sins thou canst not. Until God can be unjust, and demand two payments for one debt, He cannot destroy the soul for whom Jesus died."
Think about it Jac. According to you, Hell is full of souls who were just as much bought with the blood of Christ as you and I. That is just not acceptable.
You theology of “election” is also nonsense. In fact, by definition, it isn't election. It is ratification. In your view, God doesn't really elect anyone, He just ratifies their choice. You write, “What does that mean, “elected in Christ”? “In Christ” refers to location or position. If I said, “I was chosen in the house,” or “He was chosen in the field,” we would not think that I was chosen to be in the house or chosen to be in the field. The implication is that, while in the house, I was chosen, or while in the field, he was chosen. Thus, we see that God looks at those “in Christ” and He chooses them. Which ones does He choose? ALL of them!”. Again, this is not election, it is ratification. According to you, people choose to be “in Christ”, and Jesus comes along and puts His stamp of approval on their choice. This is unscriptural. No one can choose to be “in Christ” unless it has been granted to him by the Father (John 6:65). “But of Him you are in Christ Jesus…” (1 Corinthians 1:30). What is really amusing is that you call this “unconditional” election. It couldn't be more conditional. In order to be “elected”, according to you, you must choose to be “in Christ”. This is a condition (as well as a work).
You wrote “no where in Scripture do we find the doctrine that regeneration precedes faith”. The Scripture clearly says so, as I quoted in 1 John 5:1, “...everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God”. This clearly places belief AFTER the new birth, and anyone who can read can see this, despite your naysaying. If you believe in Christ, you have already been born of God. Furthermore, those who are born again have been “born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.” (John 1:13). Could this scripture be any clearer?
Now, if you please, quit stalling and deal with Romans 9:10-24. All of the 5 points of Calvinism are clearly taught in this passage, as well as your objection that “Calvinism slanders God”.
FYI: For those who are wondering, the quotes attributed to Jac in this post came from http://discussions.godandscience.org/vi ... highlight=
Now with Lordship, Paul gives us a clear warning.
1 Corinthians 6:9-10
"Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God".
Paul was writing this to believers, Jac (1 Corinthians 1:2). Do not be deceived.
Question to Jac: I have read in your posts you believe that even if a Christian falls from the faith and becomes, say, Muslim he or she is still saved. Is this correct? If so, why?
You are suggesting that if one (a former Christian) dies as a Muslim, they are saved. That is absolute nonsense, and a total lie. I pray that no former Christian turned Muslim is led astray by your sloppy nonsense. You may have blood on your hands.Jac's Response: Yes, I believe that to be true
Where does your faith come from Jac? Is it something meritorious that you concocted of your own resources, your small contribution to your salvation? If so, then you have a right to boast. You were able to come up with this faith all by yourself, whereas your unbelieving neighbor wasn't skilled enough to pull this off, since “not all have faith” (2 Thessalonians 3:2). If not, then where did it come from? The ability to believe is itself granted to us by God. (Philippians 1:29). The Bible is clear that our flesh profits nothing; that a man must be born of the Spirit BEFORE he can even see the kingdom of God, let alone enter it. (John 3:3)
I have also dealt with the verses that command belief, Jac. I've made it clear that permission and ability are two different things. All men MAY come, but no man CAN come. I can give you permission to flap your arms and fly to the moon. Does that mean that you have the ability to do it? God gave Pharoah a commandment, and then proceeded to harden his heart, that he would not obey it. More on that later.
I have thoroughly refuted your arguments with scripture, but you refuse to listen. What you call “exegesis” is really just trying to “explain away”. For example, in your irresponsible dealings with Rev. 20:11-15, you claim that, “a person's sins are never mentioned in this passage. What is a man condemned for? Is it his sin? By God, I say no. A person is condemned for not being found in the Book of Life. This means that he is dead in his sins. You see, he is not condemned for his sins, but for his death—that is, for his lack of life”. You claim this despite the fact that this passage clearly states that they are "judged according to their works (sin)". You also ignore the clear teaching that it is SIN that causes us to be blotted out of the Book of Life (Exodus 32:33).
You claim that “I do not hold that Christ's work on the cross was to save everyone, but to make atonement for all sin.” Christ work on the cross was to “secure eternal redemption” (Hebrews 9:12). For whom did He do this? HIS People. He came to “save HIS people from their sins” (Matthew 1:21).
Isaiah 53:11-12
“He shall see the labor of His soul,and be satisfied.
By His knowledge My righteous Servant shall justify many,
For He shall bear their iniquities.
Therefore I will divide Him a portion with the great,
And He shall divide the spoil with the strong,
Because He poured out His soul unto death,
And He was numbered with the transgressors,
And He bore the sin of many,
And made intercession for the transgressors.”
If Christ atoned for ALL sin, then how can those in Revelation 20 be judged according to their works? On what basis does anyone to Hell? As Charles Spurgeon correctly observed, "He has punished Christ, why should He punish twice for one offence? Christ has died for all His people's sins, and if thou art in the covenant, thou art one of Christ's people. Damned thou canst not be. Suffer for thy sins thou canst not. Until God can be unjust, and demand two payments for one debt, He cannot destroy the soul for whom Jesus died."
Think about it Jac. According to you, Hell is full of souls who were just as much bought with the blood of Christ as you and I. That is just not acceptable.
You theology of “election” is also nonsense. In fact, by definition, it isn't election. It is ratification. In your view, God doesn't really elect anyone, He just ratifies their choice. You write, “What does that mean, “elected in Christ”? “In Christ” refers to location or position. If I said, “I was chosen in the house,” or “He was chosen in the field,” we would not think that I was chosen to be in the house or chosen to be in the field. The implication is that, while in the house, I was chosen, or while in the field, he was chosen. Thus, we see that God looks at those “in Christ” and He chooses them. Which ones does He choose? ALL of them!”. Again, this is not election, it is ratification. According to you, people choose to be “in Christ”, and Jesus comes along and puts His stamp of approval on their choice. This is unscriptural. No one can choose to be “in Christ” unless it has been granted to him by the Father (John 6:65). “But of Him you are in Christ Jesus…” (1 Corinthians 1:30). What is really amusing is that you call this “unconditional” election. It couldn't be more conditional. In order to be “elected”, according to you, you must choose to be “in Christ”. This is a condition (as well as a work).
You wrote “no where in Scripture do we find the doctrine that regeneration precedes faith”. The Scripture clearly says so, as I quoted in 1 John 5:1, “...everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God”. This clearly places belief AFTER the new birth, and anyone who can read can see this, despite your naysaying. If you believe in Christ, you have already been born of God. Furthermore, those who are born again have been “born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.” (John 1:13). Could this scripture be any clearer?
Now, if you please, quit stalling and deal with Romans 9:10-24. All of the 5 points of Calvinism are clearly taught in this passage, as well as your objection that “Calvinism slanders God”.
FYI: For those who are wondering, the quotes attributed to Jac in this post came from http://discussions.godandscience.org/vi ... highlight=
Now with Lordship, Paul gives us a clear warning.
1 Corinthians 6:9-10
"Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God".
Paul was writing this to believers, Jac (1 Corinthians 1:2). Do not be deceived.