Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by Canuckster1127 »

Will,

With all due respect to you, many of these statements you are making are simply untrue, unsupported and drawn by an apparent need on your part to make your evidence meet a need for something that if God had wanted to accomplish He would have done.

First, the "Word of God" is Jesus Christ, not the Bible. One can accept Jesus Christ as Savior (as the early church did without the Bible being canonized in its current form until the 4th century) One can accept inspiration, infallibility and inerrency in the original texts without creating the ridiculous argument that God intended a particular English Version, translated from the original languages more than 1500 years after Christ rose from the dead, and no one complete set of manuscripts to suddenly fill the need that you continue to reason backwards from. In fact, I'll even go so far as to say, that I believe God could have, if he so chose, had the Bible miraculously descend from on high without human involvement if it were God's intention to be reduced to a book rather than how he in fact chose to incarnate Himself and reveal Himself to man, which again was in the person of Jesus Christ. The Bible is not the 4th member of the Trinity. Neither has God ever intended for the Bible to be placed upon a pedestal and worshipped and treated like a manual or rule book. One can accept inspiration, and infallibility without the need to stick one's fingers in their ears and in effect ignore the facts and create a line of transition to a translation that is demonstrably imperfect, and it is not reasonable nor supported by the evidence to be what you claim to the extent that you have here.

I hardly know where to start with what you've put up above and I suspect there will be little interaction on your part with anything I say, and so with some hope that you will discuss this, but more from concern of those who are observing, I'll address a few.
The reason the majority of Christians no longer believe that any Bible in any language is the complete and 100% true words of God is because the pastors and seminarians are taught this and then pass it on to the common Christians. Another big reason is because the Bible itself tells us that there will be a falling away from the faith in the last days before the return of Christ. 2 Thes. 2:3 "Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come except there come a falling away first..." The Lord Himself asks a rhetorical question in Luke 18:8 "Nevertheless, when the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth?", and God Himself says that He will send a famine of hearing the words of God - Amos 8:11-12 "Behold, the days come, saith the Lord GOD, that I will send a famine in the land, not a famine of bread, nor a thirst for water, but of hearing the words of the LORD: And they shall wander from sea to sea, and from the north even to the east, they shall run to and fro to seek the word of the LORD, and shall not find it."
The internal logic and contradictions of what is said above are appalling and self-contradictory and the use of these verses has been cobbled together to say something that simply isn't taught by the Bible about itself. First you make a statement that "the" reason for something, the language of which is exclusive and then proceed to give "another" reason. It's a small point overall but it illustrates the empassioned rhetoric you're giving to make claims for something that is just not consistent with the facts. The reason anyone believes in the true word of God who is Christ can certainly be through the testimony of the Bible and often is, but it is a work of the Holy Spirit that takes place in the heart of a person. Higher forms of criticism are certainly a realm where non-believers seek to cast doubt upon the Gospel message but there are a strong number of believers who are equipped to work in this area who believe in the Bible and respect and honor it as a primary means of revealed truth without in effect becoming anti-intellectual and going above and beyond what God Himself has chosen to do to preserve the Bible. Are you or anyone else wiser than God or is God unable to work through His plan so that what He has done now needs you to "help" him by elevating a particular version of the Bible to claim for it what cannot be demonstrated and proven in the original languages and manuscripts? I choose to believe that God knows what he is doing and that one reason that He orchestrated things as he has may be that He never intended the Bible to be seen as the equivilent or equal of Christ Himself, or God forbid, more than Him.
Some versions like the RSV omit some 45 entire verses from the N.T. plus another 2000-3000 words
.

That is true. What you appear to miss is that the other possibility is that the KJB in part or whole adds these verses and words for many reasons. There is no one manuscript that is used or was used to create any version of the Bible. The reality is, which is undeniable no matter how some attempt to dance around it, that we don't have the original manuscripts. Further the manuscripts we have don't all agree in every area. Most elements of disagreement are very easily reconcilled. There are simple copying errors made by scribes. There are occassional notes placed by scribes or scholars on some manuscripts that then inadvertantly have been imported into the text in latter places. There are even a few areas where there may be intentional changes made by some attempting to "help" the Bible. What's ironic to me, is that is in effect what the KJB only supporters do. They try to "help" God by claiming more than her chose to do. The sad part is that if someone hears that message, many assume what you're saying to be true and then on the basis of your argument reject the entire Bible when they examine the evidence. The support for the Bible today is remarkably better than any other writings from the periods of time they come from. There is a remarkable amount of good work done and being done that supports the overall reliability of the Bible and the strong likelihood that what was originally written has been preserved. In the end, the Bible is not some Gnostic document that has to be elevated into some spiritual realm accessibly only to those who accept the mystical key against all reason that God chose an english version of the Bible to become more than it is.

The all or nothing logical error KJB promotes in that regard may in fact be responsible for some of what you claim is a result of liberal seminaries and pastors. People may indeed accept your premise, but then when they see the evidence that your claim is unprovable and outside the claims that the Bible makes for itself that there must be a perfect Bible or God is impotent then the result will be that they will walk away rejecting the faith.

The reality is, that the preservation and reliability of the compilated text we have that most modern translations have been based upon, are remarkable for the level in which they do agree. Ironically much of this work has taken place since 1611 when the KJB used what was known as the Textus Receptus which was pretty much a compilation of the manuscripts that were used for the Geneva Bible and which accepted a particular rendering of a passage based upon a majority of the manuscripts with no regard to the age of the manuscripts or the traditions tracable. We have more manuscripts discovered since then. God and the Bible don't need the exagerated and simplistic arguments of the KJB movement. Despite the fact that many question and challenge things and reject the Bible there is very good work that has been done and which I and many others accept and affirm its inspiration and infallibility without having to go to the lengths you do. We serve the cause of Christ better I believe by keeping the focus upon him rather than trying to reverse engineer something that God didn't go Himself.
They also reveal their unbiblical stand and deep ignorance by their inane statement "made by imperfect men". If God cannot use "imperfect men" to give us His words, then we would never have had "the originals" to begin with!
God certainly can and has used imperfect men to reveal his truth through the Bible. There is only one perfect man and that man, the Son of God, Jesus Christ is the fullest revelation of God. If God desired to elevate the Bible to the level you claim, God was certainly capable of preserving it in the originals he gave and delivering it outside of men themselves. Claiming that the perfect revelation now has jumped over those originals which we no longer have, and is based upon a translation into another language different from the originals is simply preposterous. It's indicative of the cultural tendency sadly we have in the West to somehow believe that we are more special and understanding of God than other people today or in other times. English is not the chosen language of God to reveal his truth to the rest of the world. That came through the nation of Israel in Hebrew and Aramaic and then through Christ in a time of history where Hebrew, aramaic and greek were spoken. We have not as a nation or culture replaced Israel. We are the body of Christ, of which Christ is the head, not the Bible, and which is made alive and preserved through the Holy Spirit. The Bible is important and wonderful and part of God's plan, but not to level you're attempting to raise it. The Bible is both a divine and a human document because God chose to deliver it through those channels.

More can be said, but again, I don't see a great deal of reason to continue. You have come onto our site and simply taken material from your site and cut and pasted and instead of interacting with the questions you're asked then continue with a series of strawmen arguments, ad hominem statements. logical fallacies and in some cases just plain distortion of many simple facts that require the mental gymnastics to come to a conclusion and claim something that God Himself chose not to do. I appreciate that you don't go to the extent of claiming that others who use these other "inferior" translations are not unsaved. I won't do you that discourtesy either.

I really question however, your approach here and I have to point out again, that you are not being fully respectful of the discussion guidelines here. That's hardly an effective way to win a hearing for your thoughts and message.

I'm sorry if this sounds harsh but ridiculous claims require strong rebuttals.

If you want to have a productive conversation which if not leading to agreement will at least present the positions clearly, I would suggest we stick with shorter posts, stick to a topic and stick to those claims that can be demonstrated or proven.

bart
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by B. W. »

Hi Will,

Do you know any Hebrew? Let's use the Hebrew Construct Chain. In Hebrew — the English word “of” does not exist!

Hebrew expresses the “of possessive' between two nouns by what is known as the Construct Chain. This is when two nouns are placed side by side or connected together so that it looks like this in English for us:

Messenger King or theMessengerKing

There are two links in this chain — the construct and absolute. Thus the first Noun in our example “Messenger” is the construct noun and the last noun is always the Absolute Noun — 'King” in our example. There is only one absolute noun. In the construct chain THERE ARE NO OTHER WORDS OF PARTIICLES that separate them.

I'll skip down to the vowel reduction as used on a construct noun as it is used in every English Translation — even the KJV and translated as “OF THE” and OF is not used in Hebrew text - it is implied in our English translations!

There is no Hebrew word — of !

Therefore the KJV is in error, just as every English Translation would be for using OF in a construct chain...

The actual way to read the construct chain — messenger king would be as: messenger's king.

However our English grammar — messenger's king would not make sense as the messenger owns the king.

To make it make sense in English you can do this is two ways. First, add 'of the' between messenger and king to read messenger of the king.

Second way is to transpose the Hebrew by making the construct noun messenger last (violating Hebrew grammar) and the absolute noun King first (also violating the Hebrew grammar rules) so it read in English: The King's Messenger.

Or add in a thrid way - reading Messenger King's if you like...

The KJV struggled with this and inserted words like Angels for Messengers and thus changed the textual meaning in many cases as well as added in “of” to the text to show possession.

I'll give you an example — Exodus 3:2, “and the Angel of the LORD appeared….”

You have three violations of Hebrew words in the KJV — Angel — is Malack meaning Messenger and Lord is Yahweh and then the use 'of the' added in as well.

The better translation for the Hebrew construct and absolute nouns into English would read like this: “Messenger Yahweh appear …”

Or you could also transpose the construct and absolute nouns for English removing the “of the” to read: Yahweh's Messenger appeared…”

Sorry, the ancient Hebrew's did not speak King James English and Jesus was Jewish and did not speak in an English accent either!

Everyone of our English translations have various translation flaws as the nuances of language and grammar differ. This does not mean we have bad translations. That is why it is best to use several English translations instead of only one if you do not have the time to study Hebrew or Greek.

I use the NKJV as I like it and the ESV. I have KJV but do not use it when I preach as the old English and use of words like used in 2 Peter 2:16 is nowadays inappropriate to use from the pulpit as dumb a-s-s has now taken on a whole new meaning from whence 1611 KJV editions and revisions have it to read! And besides this - the KJV failed to translate Yahweh correctly by using LORD or Jehovah instead… so it is not perfect either...

My favorite translations are various Greek NT Interlinear and Hebrew Interlinear bibles as well as the LXX. I use the NKJV and ESV as these are easier to read and capture much of the nuances of the original languages as does the NASB. But there is nothing like the old Hebrew and Konine Greek...either…
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by brandplucked »

Canuckster1127 wrote:Will,


First, the "Word of God" is Jesus Christ, not the Bible. One can accept Jesus Christ as Savior (as the early church did without the Bible being canonized in its current form until the 4th century) One can accept inspiration, infallibility and inerrency in the original texts without creating the ridiculous argument that God intended a particular English Version, translated from the original languages more than 1500 years after Christ rose from the dead, and no one complete set of manuscripts to suddenly fill the need that you continue to reason backwards from.
Hi canuckster. As I have time, (I am a school teacher and am quite busy) I will try to address your statements. I am well aware there is the Word of God, which refers to the Lord Jesus Christ. But there is also "the word of God" or "words of God" which refer to the inspired written revelation He has been pleased to give us. Without this "word of God" we would know absolutely nothing about "the Word of God" - nothing.

I agree with you that one can be a believer in Jesus Christ and saved even if they do not have a complete and infallible Bible. I don't even believe a person has to believe in the infallibility of the Scriptures in order to be a redeemed child of God. Otherwise, most of today's modern Christians would not even be saved because very few believe in the infallibility of "the Bible".

I have addressed many of the issues you bring up in one of my articles called Does the KJB position "blow up". You, or at least perhaps some others who are wondering whether or not there really is an infallible Bible out there somewhere, might find it of interest. Here is the link

http://brandplucked.webs.com/kjbonlyblowup.htm

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." - Matthew 11:15

Will K
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by Canuckster1127 »

Will,

Thank you. I will look at the article later today or tomorrow.

blessings,

bart
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by Canuckster1127 »

Will,

I've read the article you linked at here. I will not be able to do this on every post, as my time is limited too. However, I will say that I appreciate a few things about you that I haven't found to be true in other KJB only supporters. First, while I disagree very strongly with the position that you have taken, I do not see it as a barrier to salvation or to fellowship. I appreciate that you appear to be saying the same thing as well and so I am going to operate on the belief that we are brothers in Christ in spite of this difference. It's a major difference but it not a barrier to discussing things.

Second, this will no doubt not be a matter of importance to you and I suspect you will see it as a negative, but while I am not attempting to wear this on my sleeve nor do I think it makes me an indisputable expert, I have a degree in Biblical Literature and have worked with and studied many of these issues a great deal in the past and attempted to keep up with them in the present. I believe in the inspiration of Scripture and it's infallibility although I suspect we probably define that differently. Inspiration is literally the breathing of life and I see that as a function of the Holy Spirit both in the guidance of the writers of the Bible as well as the reader who comes to the Scripture and seeks truth within it. I hold to what is described as the Verbal Plenary understanding of inspiration which means that when the Spirit of God moved through the writers of the various books of the Bible, they were not passive scribes who simply took the words of God through them as dictation, but rather their own personalities, experiences and writing style were used and incorporated by God to bring about a final product that was fully what God intended for it to be and also fully an expression of the person God used to bring it forth.

I believe in the inerrency of the original manuscripts. That is a theoretical position, because we don't have the original manuscripts. As I've said earlier, I believe what we have is remarkably well preserved and the vast majority of errors that are found in those manuscripts are very easily correctable through simple methods of textual study and understanding. The KJV does has instances of scribal notes and possibly tampering in a few areas, which I believe the more modern translations address and correct appropriately.

In terms of the article you reference, these are my observations.
“Seek ye out of THE BOOK OF THE LORD, and read” - Isaiah 34:16


This is a reference in the Old Testament to the Pentateuch or Books of Moses and not a reference that the writer or the original audience would have understood as what we refer to as the Bible we have now. Certainly there would have been no thinking whatsoever that this was referring to a translation in 1611 AD in a yet unknown language and so there is nothing in your citing of it that supports your case or assumptions.
“I will destroy the wisdom of the wise” - 1 Corinthians 1:19


This verse is something that all of us should be mindful of and willing to adopt a position of humility and to realize when we approach scriptures they are not under us, but rather we are to receive it as the word (lower case intentional, when I use Word with a capital then I am referring to Christ who is the Word of God, God the Son and God Himself.) Sadly, what you're using it here as is to support an approach of anti-intellectualism and anti-reason, which is far from what I believe God desires of us. The foolishness of the Cross refers to the message of salvation, which is indeed seen as foolish by the world. That "foolishness" is a virtue where we put our trust in Christ on the basis of the authority of the message of the Bible, the person of Christ and the witness and testimony too of the Apostles who in the early Church preached a message that was based on Christ alone. The New Testament didn't begin to take shape until about 50 AD and the NT canon wasn't declare in any formal sense until the 4th century AD.
The one argument the “No Bible is inerrant” crowd continually throws in our face as being unanswerable is this: “Where was the perfect and inerrant Bible before 1611?”
That's certainly a fair question and I'll be interested to see if you actually answer it. It's hardly the only argument however and this is a gross overstatement and simplification.
Here are some direct quotes from a seminarian who thinks this question completely destroys our position. He writes: “I must ask you this in return, where was the Word of God prior to the KJV being written? This is where your position blows up at. You MUST claim that God didn't write an infallible Bible until 1611 if you hold to all of this. Can you name where the "complete, inspired, inerrant and 100% true wordS of God existed before the KJV was translated?" The answer needs to stay consistent with your position. Don't say they were found here or there. You MUST, to be consistent, say a specific Bible in a specific language that the "complete, inspired, inerrant and 100% true wordS of God" were located.”
This is hearsay and appears to be a carefully nuanced and contrived representation of what you want to represent those who disagree with you as saying. This is also known as a Strawman Argument. You basically give the appearance of having a conversation, but in fact you're not having a conversation. You're defining the opposing position.

It is a fair question at the heart of it. It certainly needs to be answered as to why a 1611 translation from Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek into the English of that day is more reliable than the manuscripts they are based on. However, there are many more positions with regard to these matters than how you represent this unnamed "seminarian" (which appears to be tie into an appeal again to anti-intellectualism and discounting of learning.) There are however many more positions than what you represent here.
Keep in mind that these King James Bible critics do not believe that there EVER existed a perfect and infallible Bible in ANY language (including their Hebrew and Greek) and they certainly do not believe there exists one NOW. The force of their argument is that since there was no perfect and infallible Bible before the King James Bible, then the King James Bible itself cannot be the perfect words of God anymore than their favorite, multiple choice and contradictory bible versions. They don't defend any of their modern versions like the RSV, NASB, NIV, ESV, NET, NKJV or Holman Standard as being the 100% true words of God in contrast to the other versions. Most of them don't claim to have an infallible Bible but they take offense at our claim that we do.
This is an outright misrepresentation of those collectively who disagree with you. Some may hold the position you represent here, but not all. Many, as I mentioned hold to the inerrency of the original texts and that refutes your claim. It's again a common debating technique by some to attempt to portray their opposition as making extreme statements and by them to then infer that all who disagree with their position are extreme, unreasonable or in this case, you reprent any who do not believe in your KJB only position as rejecting inerrency altogether. If your case is strong enough, you should not have to resort to this type of misrepresentation. This is also know as "all or nothing" type thinking which excluded any principled middle. It is a logical fallicy and a very dishonest debating method to use.

Most people don't disdain the KJB. I grew up with it myself. It is familiar. It is still how I remember many verses I have memorized. It is a beautiful and very important translation that has had more impact upon Western thought, literature, culture than any other translations. The errors within it, are in my estimation not a barrier to knowing God.

Elevating the words of a document and taking a position that in order for them to be reliable at all they must be seen as 100% accurate and the vehicle is more reflective of a competing religious system that challenged early Christianity known as Gnosticism. It's not a perfect match, but there are a lot of elements in what you are saying that attempt to elevate writing to some sort of "magical" formula which must be accepted in order for there to be spiritual growth and advancement. As in the past, that type of approach today elevates a book to equal or greater status than Jesus Christ Himself.
There are only three options open to them.
This is something of a false dilemma. Again, you are defining the positions of others whom you are not allowing to speak for themselves. There are actually very many more options which represent different understandings and degrees of emphasis. Again, this begs the question as to why you need to misrepresent others by these artificial means, if your position is solid.
#1. “Only the originals were inspired and infallible.” It should be pointed out that the originals never did form a 66 book Bible and they have not seen a single word of these “originals” a day in their lives. At one Bible club I belong to there was one guy who objected to my King James Bible only position saying that he was against any form of "onlyism" because it was unbiblical and elitist. I then pointed out to him that if he bothered to check almost any Baptist or other Christians site that addressed the issue of their belief about "the Bible" they almost always say: "We believe that ONLY the originals are (were) inspired and inerrant; no translation is inerrant." This most certainly is itself a form of "onlyism" and it is far worse than believing that the King James Bible is the only pure and perfect Book of the LORD. The "originals only" position leaves us without a perfect and inerrant Bible NOW, and it is a profession of faith in something that THEY KNOW does not exist. Now how silly is that?!?.


Here you introduce an artificial standard that when looked at even a little critically falls completely apart. You're confusing or deliberately misusing the words inspired and infallible, with inerrant. By this switching of terms and concepts you again make your fictional opponent appear to be saying more than many who disagree with you would. You then make an appeal to a completely arbitrary and contrived standard that in fact your position doesn't live up to. The 66 books of the Bible did not form a single volume before the 4th century AD and even then additional books were carried at times, which are now known as the apocrypha. You in effect make an emotional appeal for those who are used to seeing the Bible in a particular format and binding and equate that sense of familliarity with divine intention. Your assertion as well to the seeing of the originals begs the question too, have you ever seen "the" original KJB? If not, how is your assertion consistent with your own position?
#2. “All reliable bible versions (NASB, NIV, RSV, ESV, NKJV, Holman, KJV, Spanish, German etc.) are the inspired and infallible words of God.” How someone with the discernment of lime jello can say such a thing is beyond me, but I do run into this type of nonsense. In order to hold to view #2 they need to give new meanings to old words. "Infallible" no longer means "without errors"; it now must means something like "ballpark close enough to be divinely useful" or something like that. These modern versions differ among themselves by omitting or adding literally THOUSANDS of words from the New Testament alone, and the modern versions change the meanings of hundreds of verses and often reject the Hebrew readings, and not even in the same places as the others. Not one of them agrees textually with any other in scores if not thousands of places. Try arguing that they are all “the inspired and 100% true words of God” before a court of law or even a high school debating team and you will be laughed out of the room.
Nice. After creating your fictional opponent and stretching and misrepresenting what those who disagree with you, you now go to ad hominem attacks outright saying those who disagree with you are less discerning than "lime jello." Who now is appealing to wisdom and perfect knowledge in their position and when did the verse you quoted earliler from I Corinthians cease to potentially apply to you? I don't know of anyone who makes the claim that any translations are individually "the" word of God individually or collectively other than the KJB position. You then make a miscategorization by equating the "New Testament" as defined by the "KJB" in terms of the number of words. This is a circular argument again that appears to me to be an intentional confusion of terms again.
#3 There really is a complete, inspired, inerrant and 100% true Holy Bible and history and the internal evidence points to the Authorized King James Bible as being the Final Written Authority and the true words of the living God. You only have these three options. There is no other alternative.
Really? How about if someone took the position that any one of the other versions you mentioned were "the" complete, inspired, inerrant and 100% true Holy Bible? There would then be as many more positions to the 3 you claim as the "only" options we have, as there are other translations of the Bible.

Far be it from me to claim to have the wisdom of a high school debating team ... but I think I may hear some laughter in the background with regard to your fallacious logic here.

I'll end off here for now and pick it up later. I certainly hope it gets better and more internally consistent than this. You haven't even made any real points of your own. All you've done here is set up a straw man, use several other patent logic fallacies and seek to ridicule those you disagree with before you've even done one thing to answer the question you claimed you were going to address at the beginning of your article.

I take no joy in having to take you to task for this, but this is just simply so far not very impressive by even High School debtating standards.

I hope it gets better. We'll see.

blessings,

bart
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by B. W. »

Hi Will,

First off, let me add that as far as I can tell, no one here as moderator is attacking the KJV so for you to say you came to defend it - is well - strange indeed. Defend it from 'whom' is accusing it on this forum? No one…that I can tell...

I have shown you quite clearly how even the KJV is not the most accurate English translation in its own translation of the Hebrew Word — YHWH into LORD as well as the use of Angel instead of Messenger for the Hebrew word Malak, used in the Construct Chain which in turn has influenced all other English translations as well.

Malak is used in about 196 verses in the Old Testament. Gen 32:3 we see Jacob sending a malak — should it be angel or messenger? Deu 2:36 — Moses sent Malaks out as well. Rahab hide malaks in Joshua 6:17, 25, Isa 30:4 malak is called an ambassador. You have about 100 verses malak translated as Angel and 96 as messenger.

The basic meaning for Malak is a Hebrew masculine noun meaning simply a messenger, envoy, denoting one sent on business or diplomacy, someone sent to bear a word and/or do a task.

The messengers can either be human, angelic beings, or even God himself. The context of scripture it is found in tells what type of messenger it is. Sometimes the style of the Hebrew nouns used in a Construct Chain contain a sense of mystery to be solved latter by context - like a sign shouting out an implied - who can this be? You cannot convey this in English very well.

For example, Gideon encountered a Malak — a messenger in Judges 6:11. Who is this Malak — angelic, human, or divine - who can it be? Certainly not a human messenger as the context implies. From the first construct chain in Judges 6:11 a sense of mystery is announced — who is this messenger? The answer in found in Judges 6:22, 23. It was the Lord, the Messenger, the incarnate Word appearing to Gideon.

This is important as it is lost in all English translations. There was a Malak, known to the Patriarchs, and to Moses, who was known as the Messenger Yahweh. He bore Words and did task and those who saw him, lived and not died. John wrote in John 1:1,14 who this is and Jesus reveals that He is the I AM from Exodus 3 — The Word, Messenger/Malak Yahweh who always brings salvation and deliverance to his people to lead them into a new land. Not an angelic being but God himself, the one who you could look to and live discovering salavtion.

Listen; was his message to the patriarchs, to Moses to deliver the People out of slavery? To Gideon deliverance from oppression? To Samson deliverance from oppression and whose name is wonderful (Judges 13:18, Isa 9:6). This is the Word that John spoke about! Now - What did Jesus do?

English translations miss this nuance and insert angel for messenger and we get the wrong idea and cannot discern the difference between an angelic being, a messenger, and God Himself as there was one known who the ancients looked for - the Word - that Messenger Yahweh - whom you could see and not die (John 3:13, 14, 15, 16). The Word became Flesh and dwelt amongst us. Who would come as Messiah Isa 9:6 and set us free and lead us home to the true promise land.

The KJV helped lead the way in obfuscating this in its use of angel making no distinction if the malak was angelic being or God himself. KJV did a good job but there are no perfect English translations because the nuances of languages vary in the translations. It cannot be helped. Is the KJV a good translation? Yes it is — is it grammar and word form outdated, yes it is.

I would not be so apt to attack other English version so easily. Even the poorest translation in my opinion, the Good News Bible, on occasion can get a verse right!

I use the NKJV and ESV with a balance with the NASB. I use Interlinear Bibles as well because when I teach from the word of God, I need to be able to unlock the mysteries of the gospel message into an easily comprehendible form.

If you love and like the KJV — then use it. You have no quarrel with me or any moderator here — be blest but learn wisdom and be not so rash to attack other translations either. Why not simply get an interlinear bible or computer software and learn a little bit of honest textual Criticism as well.

So be blessed in what you do and remember no one here is attacking the KJV.

Have a nice day…
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by brandplucked »

Hi brother Bart. Thanks for taking the time to not only read the article but to respond at some length. First of all, I do consider those Christians who use and promote the modern versions to be my brothers and sisters in the faith. The gospel of salvation through the blood of the Lamb is found even in the worst of versions or translations out there. Salvation is not the issue. God can use a simple gospel tract or even a Christian hymn to bring someone to saving faith in Christ. So on this very important point we are agreed.

Secondly, the quotes I gave from those who maintain that "only the originals were inspired" (which is essentially your own view) were not artificially made up. Those are actual quotes from people I have encountered on various forums.

You talk about the originals and the Hebrew texts making up "the book of the LORD", and yet ALL your modern versions like the NASB, NIV, RSV, ESV, Holman, NET etc. often reject these same Hebrew readings from the O.T. Can you explain that?

Here are many examples of this that I have found:
http://brandplucked.webs.com/nivnasbrejecthebrew.htm

http://brandplucked.webs.com/nivnasbrejecthebrew2.htm

As for your claim that we are now or can be 95 or 99% sure of the N.T. readings, this is completely untrue, and even if it were true, you still have no complete and 100% true preserved words of God. Did Jesus Christ lie when He said "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but My words shall not pass away."?

Check out what even modern scholars are saying about the uncertainty of the N.T. today.

http://brandplucked.webs.com/thebiblenotinspired.htm

And perhaps take a glance at this one I recently posted - Are the Bible Versions 99% the Same?

http://brandplucked.webs.com/arebibles995same.htm

Your originals only position simply leaves you with NO complete, inspired and 100% true Bible EVER. The originals never did make up a Bible, and they certainly do not exist now, as you pointed out.

The fact is, brother, that fewer and fewer Christians today believe in the infallibility of Scripture and Biblical ignorance is at an all time high. It is even the non-KJB onlyists who are pointing this out. That is where I am getting my quotes from, not from the Bible believers.

All of grace, believing The Book,

Will Kinney
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by brandplucked »

B. W. wrote:Hi Will,

First off, let me add that as far as I can tell, no one here as moderator is attacking the KJV so for you to say you came to defend it - is well - strange indeed. Defend it from 'whom' is accusing it on this forum? No one…that I can tell...
Hi BW. Well, here is the link directly from your site that led me to start this whole thread. It was posted by another Bible believer over at the Which Version club.

http://www.godandscience.org/apologetic ... uD5oNK8CCN


I have shown you quite clearly how even the KJV is not the most accurate English translation in its own translation of the Hebrew Word — YHWH into LORD as well as the use of Angel instead of Messenger for the Hebrew word Malak, used in the Construct Chain which in turn has influenced all other English translations as well.
Brother, you have shown nothing of the kind. What you have shown us is your own opinion and nothing more. There are many Bible translators who disagree with you about your Yahweh, YHWH thingy, (See here: http://brandplucked.webs.com/jehovah.htm )


And you make up your own translations that are not even found in versions like the NASB, NIV, RSV, ESV, NKJV or any other Bible I have seen. In my view, you are just another Every Man For Himself Bible Versionist, who has no complete and infallible Bible to give anybody.

I asked you which of the following readings are the true ones found in your "original Hebrew" and you ignored them. Are you willing to come out publicly and tell every body else here that versions like the NASB, NIV, RSV, ESV, NKJV etc. are not the pure and inspired words of God too?

The following short list is just a sampling of the divergent and confusing readings found among the contradictory modern bible versions. There are numerous other examples. Among these “details” are whether Jeremiah 27:1 reads Jehoiakim (Hebrew texts, RV,ASV, NKJV, KJB) or Zedekiah (NIV, NASB); whether 2 Samuel 21:8 reads Michal (Hebrew texts, KJB,NKJV, RV, ASV) or Merab (NIV, NASB), or 70 (NASB, NKJV, RV, ASV,KJB) being sent out by the Lord Jesus in Luke 10:1 or 72 (NIV), or the 7th day in Judges 14:15 (KJB, NKJV, RV, ASV) or the 4th day (NASB, NIV), or God smiting 50,070 men in 1 Samuel 6:19 (KJB, RV,ASV,NASB) or 70 men slain (NIV, RSV), or “70 men- 50 chief men” (Young's), or there being 30,000 chariots in 1 Samuel 13:5 (KJB, NKJV, RV, ASV, NASB, ESV) or only 3000 (NIV, & Holman), or 1 Samuel 13:1 reading - ONE/TWO years (NKJV, KJB, Geneva,Judaica Press Tanach), or 40/32 (NASB 1972-77) or 30/42 (NASB 1995, NIV), or _____years and.______and two years (RSV, ESV), or even “32 years old...reigned for 22 years” in the 1989 Revised English Bible!; 2 Samuel 15:7 “forty years” (Hebrew, Geneva, NKJV, NASB, RV) OR “four years” (NIV,RSV, ESV,NET), or whether both 2 Samuel 23:18 and 1 Chronicles 11:20 read THREE (Hebrew texts, RV, ASV, NKJV, NIV, NET, Holman or THIRTY from the Syriac NASB, RSV, ESV), or 2 Samuel 24:13 reading SEVEN years (Hebrew, ASV, NASB, NKJV) or THREE years (LXX, NIV, RSV, ESV) or whether 1 Kings 5:11 reads 20 measures of pure oil (Hebrew texts, Geneva, KJB, ASV, RV, NASB, NRSV) or 20,000 (RSV, NIV, ESV, NET, LXX and Syriac) or in 2 Chronicles 31:16 we read THREE years old (Hebrew texts, Geneva Bible, Wycliffe, LXX, Syriac, RV, ASV, RSV, NRSV, ESV, NIV, NKJV, Holman, NET) or THIRTY years old (NASB - ft. Hebrew “three”) or where 2 Chronicles 36:9 reads that Jehoiachin was 8 years old when he began to reign (Hebrew texts, NASB, NKJV, RV,ASV,KJB, ESV) or he was 18 years old (NIV).

God bless,

Will K



Malak is used in about 196 verses in the Old Testament. Gen 32:3 we see Jacob sending a malak — should it be angel or messenger? Deu 2:36 — Moses sent Malaks out as well. Rahab hide malaks in Joshua 6:17, 25, Isa 30:4 malak is called an ambassador. You have about 100 verses malak translated as Angel and 96 as messenger.

The basic meaning for Malak is a Hebrew masculine noun meaning simply a messenger, envoy, denoting one sent on business or diplomacy, someone sent to bear a word and/or do a task.

The messengers can either be human, angelic beings, or even God himself. The context of scripture it is found in tells what type of messenger it is. Sometimes the style of the Hebrew nouns used in a Construct Chain contain a sense of mystery to be solved latter by context - like a sign shouting out an implied - who can this be? You cannot convey this in English very well.

For example, Gideon encountered a Malak — a messenger in Judges 6:11. Who is this Malak — angelic, human, or divine - who can it be? Certainly not a human messenger as the context implies. From the first construct chain in Judges 6:11 a sense of mystery is announced — who is this messenger? The answer in found in Judges 6:22, 23. It was the Lord, the Messenger, the incarnate Word appearing to Gideon.

This is important as it is lost in all English translations. There was a Malak, known to the Patriarchs, and to Moses, who was known as the Messenger Yahweh. He bore Words and did task and those who saw him, lived and not died. John wrote in John 1:1,14 who this is and Jesus reveals that He is the I AM from Exodus 3 — The Word, Messenger/Malak Yahweh who always brings salvation and deliverance to his people to lead them into a new land. Not an angelic being but God himself, the one who you could look to and live discovering salavtion.

Listen; was his message to the patriarchs, to Moses to deliver the People out of slavery? To Gideon deliverance from oppression? To Samson deliverance from oppression and whose name is wonderful (Judges 13:18, Isa 9:6). This is the Word that John spoke about! Now - What did Jesus do?

English translations miss this nuance and insert angel for messenger and we get the wrong idea and cannot discern the difference between an angelic being, a messenger, and God Himself as there was one known who the ancients looked for - the Word - that Messenger Yahweh - whom you could see and not die (John 3:13, 14, 15, 16). The Word became Flesh and dwelt amongst us. Who would come as Messiah Isa 9:6 and set us free and lead us home to the true promise land.

The KJV helped lead the way in obfuscating this in its use of angel making no distinction if the malak was angelic being or God himself. KJV did a good job but there are no perfect English translations because the nuances of languages vary in the translations. It cannot be helped. Is the KJV a good translation? Yes it is — is it grammar and word form outdated, yes it is.

I would not be so apt to attack other English version so easily. Even the poorest translation in my opinion, the Good News Bible, on occasion can get a verse right!

I use the NKJV and ESV with a balance with the NASB. I use Interlinear Bibles as well because when I teach from the word of God, I need to be able to unlock the mysteries of the gospel message into an easily comprehendible form.

If you love and like the KJV — then use it. You have no quarrel with me or any moderator here — be blest but learn wisdom and be not so rash to attack other translations either. Why not simply get an interlinear bible or computer software and learn a little bit of honest textual Criticism as well.

So be blessed in what you do and remember no one here is attacking the KJV.

Have a nice day…
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by Jac3510 »

Well, I suppose if we get to lift one English translation above the Hebrew or Greek texts, then I am going to be a . . . hmm . . . let me think . . .

Oh, I know! I am going to be a Message Onlyist!

Brand, I encourage you to believe THE ONLY TRUE BIBLE: THE MESSAGE. THAT'S IT. God inspired that one. Don't bother appealing to verses or words taken out or added. You can only appeal to The Message. That's it. It's sad, really, that so many people refuse to believe that The Message is 100% inerrant. People just don't believe in inerrancy anymore.

---------------

Ok, with that out of my system, sorry brand. I don't know about you, but I've taken several years of formal training in both Greek and Hebrew. I translate out of the Greek and Hebrew regularly. I use them in my personal studies and when I prepare to teach. No English translation--not one--always gets it right. It's literally impossible. Languages aren't codes. There are some things that are impossible to bring from one language to another without long, drawn-out explanations (which is exactly why we have teachers/preachers). There are other problems--take the word "baptize." That's just a Greek word. If you were to translate it, it would be "immerse." Why did the KJV bring the Greek word directly into English? Because they didn't want to offend King James himself, who practiced baptism by sprinkling.

The fact is, translations are fine, but they are not the Greek or Hebrew. If you want to support the KJV as the best translation based on text-type (Receptus vs. Critical), then feel free to make that argument. You'll be in good company. But what you are saying here just doesn't hold up to scrutiny.

God bless
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by B. W. »

Hi Will,

Will, no is attacking the KJV and you need to get a grip on reality…

You need to answer the question — if the KJV is the truest most actuate translation then why was YHWH (Yahweh) translated as LORD (which is Adoni) if it is indeed the best translation and why doesn't it capture the nuances of the original languages as used in the Hebrew Construct Chain?

The KJV changed Yahweh's name to Adoni! Other Translations followed suite. KJV has flaws as does any translation would have from one language group into another. Reading various translations as well as interlinear bibles provides people the best way to get a better English translation than just relying only on one text.

Again answer these simple questions:

1- if the KJV is the truest most actuate translation then why was YHWH (Yahweh) translated as LORD (which is Adoni) if it is indeed the best translation?

2-and why doesn't it capture the nuances of the original languages as used in the Hebrew Construct Chain?

3-Do you really know even a little Hebrew of the Old Testament?

One last question to add to the three above:

Malachi 2:10 — Why does the KJV used a translation to translate from that changes the entire flow of God speaking to the people as Literally YOU and then in verse 10 changes to US?

Please note Malachi 2:4 that it is the Lord who is speaking and in verse 10 is God saying that He is created? This is in Violation of what the Yahweh himself declares see Isaiah 43:10 - Isaiah 46:6, 8 - Isaiah 45:5, 14, 18, 21, 22 for details.

Why did the KJV use a corrupted text? The Oldest LXX versions dating to the BCE or BC era translated Malachi 2:10 like this: “Have you all not have one father? hath not one God created you? why do you all deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of your fathers?”

Now compare with contextual flow of Malachi 2:8, 9, 10 and note how verse 10 is translated breaking the personal pronoun flow.

Malachi 2:8-10, "But ye are departed out of the way; ye have caused many to stumble at the law; ye have corrupted the covenant of Levi, saith the LORD of hosts. 9 Therefore have I also made you contemptible and base before all the people, according as ye have not kept my ways, but have been partial in the law. 10 Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers? " KJV

Now re-read Malachi 2:10 as in the oldest LXX versions in context with verses 8 and 9: “Have you all not have one father? hath not one God created you? why do you all deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of your fathers?”

The Greek Septuagint remains true to Hebrew grammar in Malachi and in tune with the OT Hebrew grammar structure used throughout the OT when God himself is declaring a matter as well as the grammar flow of the entire book of Malachi!

The current modern Hypothesis for this change in grammar structure for Malachi 2:10 states simply that this came about due to Jesus. Note how this book rebukes the religious Leaders for failing their duties as did so Jesus as recorded in the gospel accounts; thus, making Malachi (which means in Hebrew Messenger Mine or my Messenger — My Malak) a reference to the incarnate Christ speaking within this book as the Malak Yahweh — rebuking the religious order of that era in time. (John 1:1, 14)

The current hypothesis is that the Hebrew translators changed 2:10 to thwart this interpretation…which would prove Jesus is who he says he is as well as prove the Orthodox Christian Doctrine of the Trinity true…The Theological implications are staggering!

Therefore why did the most accurate translation — the KJV use a corrupted text in interpreting Malachi 2:10?

Therefore please answer the following questions:

1- if the KJV is the truest most actuate translation then why was YHWH (Yahweh) translated as LORD (which is Adoni) if it is indeed the best translation?

2-and why doesn't it capture the nuances of the original languages as used in the Hebrew Construct Chain?

3-Do you really know even a little Hebrew of the Old Testament?

4- Why did the most accurate translation — the KJV use a corrupted text in interpreting Malachi 2:10?

Last Point:

Will in all due respect — your reputation proceedeth you. You have been on other forums and have been banned — even some of the KJV Only Forums that tout your doctrine.

All you are doing is providing links to your writings and sources and using this forum for that purpose. You do not appear to want to discuss nor answer real honest questions posed to you. You frame your argument is to listen to NO one — and attempt to shout down any so that only your point of view is heard.

Marxist, Socialist, Communist, and Progressive Liberals use the same tactics as you employ. This is called pride — they type of pride that Proverbs 6:16, 17, 18, 19 speaks of as quoted below:

“These six things doth the LORD hate: yea, seven are an abomination unto him: 17 A proud look, a lying tongue, and hands that shed innocent blood, 18 An heart that deviseth wicked imaginations, feet that be swift in running to mischief, 19 A false witness that speaketh lies, and he that soweth discord among brethren.” KJV

You are doing a great injustice even to your own cause…
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by Canuckster1127 »

Will,

This is really getting very tedious. You basically repeat what you've said before, aren't engaging at any real depth with the material you've been given in response and then continue on to raise a multitude of other issues repeating and then further building upon your unsubstantiated claims.

It really feels to me that you're simply using this thread and our site as a soapbox without any real intent to explore or learn yourself.

As far as I'm concerned, if this is going to be the continued pattern, you've introduced the issue, provided links to your articles and if you're not going to engage there's really no value to continuing this. Several of us have taken a great deal of time to deal at length with your arguments, you simply respond to one or two issues from a post, and usually not the main points, in a very cursory way and then proceed to throw more material up without the responses to your previous issues being addressed. Apart from the disrespect this demonstrates, this is also a very disingenuous approach to any debate or discussion and in my estimation it is not in keeping with the discussion guidelines that we've adopted for our online community.

It's very clear to me that you're effectively reasoning backward from a position that if God hasn't provided a 100% error free Bible then there is no foundation to the faith. It appears to me again that you're confusing this with the foundation that has been given us, namely Jesus Christ. Assuming that God has chosen a particular version of the Bible to accomplish this purpose when that Bible itself makes no such claim for itself means that your source of authority in this path of thinking is based in tradition. I say that because clearly, there's very little reason or experience involved in what you're coming up with and I'm stating that as a matter of demonstrated fact based upon this thread and further some observation of your articles and then finally on a review of other boards and communities where you have attempted to bring this message.

I appreciate again that you have not attempted to make this issue a cardinal one in terms of salvation. Frankly it was that, that made me hopeful that we might have a productive conversation. But having a conversation requires both parties to be willing to listen as well as speak, to agree on terms and to at least attempt to understand what the other is saying and why. I and several others on this thread have attempted to do this with you and it doesn't appear that there is anything more to do unless some willingness to change this pattern is made on your part.

So, if your stated purpose has been to come and to respond to the article on our main page, then you have accomplished that purpose. Anyone who wishes to consider the matter is aware that there is another view and they can determine from this thread for themselves the value of your arguments and if they wish they can pursue the matter further by going to your site and linked articles.

If there's anything more that you wish to discuss, may I suggest that you take a little of the time and focus upon what has been offered to you and instead of giving us boilerplate cut and pastes, that you actually take some time to read and respond to the questions and challenges you've been offered.

If not, then I believe the productive possibilities of this conversation are quickly running out.

blessings,

bart
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Every Man For Himself Bible Versionists

Post by brandplucked »

Jac3510 wrote:Well, I suppose if we get to lift one English translation above the Hebrew or Greek texts...

I've taken several years of formal training in both Greek and Hebrew. I translate out of the Greek and Hebrew regularly. I use them in my personal studies and when I prepare to teach. No English translation--not one--always gets it right. It's literally impossible. Languages aren't codes. There are some things that are impossible to bring from one language to another without long, drawn-out explanations (which is exactly why we have teachers/preachers). There are other problems--take the word "baptize." That's just a Greek word. If you were to translate it, it would be "immerse." Why did the KJV bring the Greek word directly into English? Because they didn't want to offend King James himself, who practiced baptism by sprinkling.

The fact is, translations are fine, but they are not the Greek or Hebrew. If you want to support the KJV as the best translation based on text-type (Receptus vs. Critical), then feel free to make that argument. You'll be in good company. But what you are saying here just doesn't hold up to scrutiny.

God bless
Hi Jac. I notice that three times here you refer to "the" Hebrew and "the" Greek. Brother, there simply is no such animal as "the" Hebrew and much less anything resembling "the" Greek.You should know that. So please quit trying to make us think you have a real Bible there in front of you that is your final authority. You don't.

Instead there are numerous Hebrew readings and multiplied different Greek texts and hundreds if not thousands of conflicting Greek manuscripts. You simply do not have a complete and 100% true Bible in ANY language, and if you say that you do your are prevaricating.

Then you go into this silly and totally baseless argument about how the KJB translators used the word "baptism" "because they didn't want to offend King James himself"! What absurdity. And you call yourself a "scholar"?

The word baptism is not only found in the King James Bible (and all modern versions as well) but also in Wycliffe Bible of 1395 (Get that? more than 200 years previous to the King James Bible!) Tyndale's N.T. 1525, Coverdale's bible of 1535, the Bishops' Bible of 1568 and the Geneva Bible of 1560 through 1602. Try to get your facts straight, please.

If, in your humble opinion, the word "immersion" is better, then why do all these modern Bible translators disagree with you, including the RV, ASV, NASB, NIV, RSV, NRSV, ESV, NKJV, Holman etc. etc.?

No, my friend, you are just another in a long list of Every Man For Himself Bible Versionists who can not give to anybody a complete and infallible Bible in any language if your life depended on it.

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." Matthew 11:15

Will K
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by Jac3510 »

When you bother learning to read Greek and Hebrew, come back and try to talk with me then. Your ignorance is typical. Your hubris is breathtaking. If you think God approves of such an attitude, then you have fun with it. For my part, I'll continue to study the texts that Paul and Moses wrote and submit to their authority.

I don't imagine we'll see you here much longer, so all the best to you in your journeys.
Proinsias wrote:I don't think you are hearing me. Preference for ice cream is a moral issue
And that, brothers and sisters, is the kind of foolishness you get people who insist on denying biblical theism. A good illustration of any as the length people will go to avoid acknowledging basic truths.
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Re: Every Man For Himself Bible Versionists

Post by cslewislover »

brandplucked wrote:Instead there are numerous Hebrew readings and multiplied different Greek texts and hundreds if not thousands of conflicting Greek manuscripts. You simply do not have a complete and 100% true Bible in ANY language, and if you say that you do your are prevaricating.
Well then the KJV isn't 100% either. As Bart and BW and maybe Jac too, have said, there are all kinds of translation issues, and they have brought up very good ones (thanks! I'm glad to have read your posts). But that doesn't mean that God doesn't get His will known. Your arguments are truly illogical, and you also are limiting God's power through His spirit to get His own work done. Amazing.
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Re: Isaiah 45:7 Does God create evil? Is the KJB wrong?

Post by B. W. »

+
Here is a link to John Macarthur's statement on the KJV only Controversy

http://www.biblebb.com/files/MAC/KJV.HTM
Quote from the John Macarthur Link worth noting...

What Is The TR?

One great problem with this whole issue is that the term, "textus receptus" is often misunderstood and misused.

The Trinitarian Bible Society exists for the purpose of circulating uncorrupted versions of the Word of God (namely KJV). Terrence H. Brown, the TBS secretary, makes this honest admission, "One problem is that many people use the term 'textus receptus' without defining it, and give the impression that this received text is available somewhere in a single manuscript or printed copy, but this is not the case. No copy, written or printed, was called the 'textus receptus' until the Elzevirs used this description in the preface to their edition in 1633. It should therefore be understood that the King James Version translators, who published their work in 1611, did not use an edition of the Greek text actually known by this name."

It is very interesting to note that there are about 290 differences between the "textus receptus" and the King James Version. Let me illustrate.

1. Note in Romans 12:11 where the TR has "serving in season" but KJV, along with all modern versions, has "serving the Lord."

2. In I Thessalonians 2:15, the TR has the pronoun "you" while the KJV, along with all other modern versions, has the pronoun "us."

3. The King James Version in Revelation 11:1 has the reading, "And the angels stood." The TR, along with all modern versions, does not include this phrase.

4. If you read 1 John 2:23 in the KJV, you note that the translators included in italics the phrase, "But he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also." It is omitted in the TR but included as a part of the text in most modern versions.

5. Luke 17:36, "Two men shall be in the field; and one shall be taken, the other left" is included in the King James Version but it is omitted in the TR and all other modern versions.

6. Matthew 23:24 is a humorous example of a printing error, not a translation error. The King James Version reads, "Ye blind guides, which strain at a gnat and swallow a camel." It's obvious to everyone that the word "at" should be "out."

7. The problem of 1 John 5:7-8 was discussed in the lengthy letter earlier so we won't discuss it here.

8. In Revelation 22:1 9, both the TR and the King James Version have the phrase, "Book of Life." That phrase is not found in any Greek manuscript, rather "tree of life" is the only text. Erasmus translated the last six verses from the Latin Vulgate because his Greek manuscript lacked these verses. Just a final note. Even the KJV translators did not claim for their work what modern promoters insist. The original translators at times were uncertain of the correct variant and made marginal notes to indicate other possibilities. In the preface to the original KJV, the editors acknowledged the profit from other versions. Here is what they wrote:

"Therefore as S. Augustine saith, that varietie of Translations is profitable for the finding out of the sense of the Scriptures: so diversitie of signification and sense in the margine, where the text is not so cleare, must needes doe good, yea, is necessary, as we are perswaded."
~~~~~~~~~ A believer should continue to use an accurate English translation which is personally most readable and understandable such as KJV, NASB, or NIV.

A Final Note

As a capstone to our discussion, we quote from the helpful brochure published by Grace Theological Seminary and written by its president, Dr. Homer A. Kent, Jr. "It needs to be remembered that the differences between the Alexandrian and Byzantine text types are not nearly as great as might be supposed. If one could remove the old English style from the King James Version so that the comparison would be fairer, the differences between these text types can be seen by noting the difference between the King James Version and the American Standard Version.

The gospel is crystal clear in either version. It is regrettable that an issue is being made over this matter in evangelical circles, especially when some extremists are making one's attitude toward the King James Version an article of faith, and unwarrantedly raising suspicions against those who do not.

The issue is forcing many Christians to make a choice where they lack the necessary knowledge and skill to do so. How much better it would be to thank God that His Word has been preserved intact for centuries, and that the wealth of manuscripts assures us that none of the words have been lost. In a few cases, we may not be certain which of several variants is the original, but our problem is an embarrassment of riches, not of loss."

Added to Bible Bulletin Board's "MacArthur's Collection" by:

Tony Capoccia
Bible Bulletin Board
Box 119
Columbus, New Jersey, USA, 08022
Pretty much sums up my view on this matter - as quoted above...
"Therefore as S. Augustine saith, that varietie of Translations is profitable for the finding out of the sense of the Scriptures: so diversitie of signification and sense in the margine, where the text is not so cleare, must needes doe good, yea, is necessary, as we are perswaded..."

As the above quoted article stated in its closing remarks: “God… His Word has been preserved intact for centuries, and that the wealth of manuscripts assures us that none of the words have been lost.”
A final word from me on this matter (for whatever it is worth):

The inerrancy of scripture is found in this: that despite human meddling, hardships of translating from one language into another, the bible remains inerrant in theme, message, and sense of scripture and has endured and continues to overcome the harshest of criticism. In that, is why it will always remain the inerrant Word of God!

Be Blest with the Word of God with understanding!

B. W. Melvin
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Science is man's invention - creation is God's
(by B. W. Melvin)

Old Polish Proverb:
Not my Circus....not my monkeys
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