Page 2 of 3

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 12:35 pm
by PaulSacramento
RickD wrote:
Jac wrote:
If "the wor(l)d' refers to the entire creation in Rom 5:12 (as I have argued extensively in the previously linked thread that it does) then Paul is just flat saying that death came into the whole of creation by Adam's sin.
But we know that sin had already entered all of creation before Adam's sin, because Satan was in the garden. You would agree that Satan sinned somtime prior to his being in the garden, right?
And that is a valid point.
The seed of sin, as it where, existed before Man, perhaps even before the creation of our world and that seed existed in Satan and His legions. The had freewill and they sinned and brought sin, arguably, into the human world.
I just don't see the issue of death existing before the fall as being a crucial one.
IMO, there is "natural death" which is a consequence of the natural order of things and then there is "unnatural death" and that was the death that was caused because of the fall and because of humans fallen nature.
What Satan did was "introduce" sin, he introduced a death that was beyond the "natural order" of things, he brought "sinful death" into the mix.
If we are too assume that there was no death before the fall, that animals did NOT hunt and kill, then we have to assume that either they "evolved" to do so or that God changed them to do so, yes?

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 1:01 pm
by Jac3510
PaulSacramento wrote:And that is a valid point.
I'm not inclined to think so. See my comments to Rick above.
If we are too assume that there was no death before the fall, that animals did NOT hunt and kill, then we have to assume that either they "evolved" to do so or that God changed them to do so, yes?
Not necessarily, though possibly. We certainly don't have to assume that they evolved to kill, and whether or not we have to assume that God changed them depends on what you precisely mean there. It's certainly possible that God actively changed instincts and behaviors and possibly some anatomical issues. Or it could just be that he placed a curse on them. Or it could just be that the animal kingdom is built in such a way that when God withdraws His presence then they react by looking out for themselves, up to and including engaging in carnivorous activity.

Who knows what the mechanism is? It doesn't matter. What matters is what the Bible says the conditions were before the Fall. If it says there was no death, as I hold it does for some reasons I've already offered, then that's what we need to affirm.

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 1:04 pm
by RickD
RickD wrote:But we know that sin had already entered all of creation before Adam's sin, because Satan was in the garden. You would agree that Satan sinned somtime prior to his being in the garden, right?

Jac wrote:
No, we don't know that at all, and that for a plethora of reasons.

1. It's unclear what a non-physical being's relationship to time would be, so it isn't even immediately clear what it strictly means to ask if Satan sinned "before" Adam did
Of course it is clear. Either Satan sinned before or after he tempted eve. It has to be before, unless you're saying Satan tempted Eve while he was an "obedient" angel. A non-fallen angel wouldn't mislead people.
Jac wrote:
2. Even if kosmos refers to the creation, as I argue, and not to mankind, it does not follow that angels and demons and heaven and hell and other spiritual realities are in view, for the simple reason that such things are not subject to death. Put differently, kosmos probably ought to be taken to the whole physical creation. Remember that Paul's entire point in that section is the presence of death and how it is that death can be overcome by and through Christ.
No Jac. Paul's point is that human death can be overcome by Christ. Unless you're saying animals can have eternal life by believing on Christ.
Jac wrote:
3. You don't have to appeal to Satan to make your point. You would do better to ask about Eve. She is a person who sinned before Adam did, and yet Paul attributes the entrance of sin and death into the world through ADAM's sin. What this tells me is that it is not sin in the abstract that brings death to all of creation, but it is the sin of the first man that brings sin into all creation. It wouldn't matter if Eve sinned or Satan or anyone else. The question is what the first man did, and what he did was cast mankind and by extension all of man's world under the darkness of the curse of sin and death.
Jac, I'm not appealing to Satan. You said that death(not just human death) was levied to creation by Adam's sin. I understood that as you meant sin caused all death. Since Satan sinned first, then if sin caused all death, as I thought you claimed, then it would have been Satan's sin that caused death, not Adam's. Since I believe Adam's sin only led to human death, I'm not appealing to Satan for my argument.

So, Paul in Romans is talking specifically about Adam's sin leading to human death, and Christ's work leading to human redemption. Again, unless you are claiming Adam's sin lead to animal death, and Christ's work leads to animal redemption.

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 1:20 pm
by Jac3510
RickD wrote:Of course it is clear. Either Satan sinned before or after he tempted eve. It has to be before, unless you're saying Satan tempted Eve while he was an "obedient" angel. A non-fallen angel wouldn't mislead people.
It isn't clear. If Satan is not "in time" then the question is meaningless. I'm not saying he is or he isn't. I'm saying it's an unclear question.
No Jac. Paul's point is that human death can be overcome by Christ. Unless you're saying animals can have eternal life by believing on Christ.
We just read Romans differently. I take Romans 8:19-21 to refer to non-human creation, and there is a difference in having "eternal life" and never dying, say, in the jaws of a lion.
Jac, I'm not appealing to Satan. You said that death(not just human death) was levied to creation by Adam's sin. I understood that as you meant sin caused all death. Since Satan sinned first, then if sin caused all death, as I thought you claimed, then it would have been Satan's sin that caused death, not Adam's. Since I believe Adam's sin only led to human death, I'm not appealing to Satan for my argument.
Whose sin caused all death, Rick? You're taking me to mean that the first time ANYONE sins that death burst through into creation. I'm saying that is precisely what I disagree with. I'm saying that ADAM's sin is the one the brought death into the world.
So, Paul in Romans is talking specifically about Adam's sin leading to human death, and Christ's work leading to human redemption. Again, unless you are claiming Adam's sin lead to animal death, and Christ's work leads to animal redemption.
And I know that's the way you take Romans 5. I just vehemently disagree, and I've spent page and pages arguing why that is in the thread on carnivorous activity before the Fall. To emphasize, it's a matter of interpretational differences. Some people think you can lose your salvation or that the the Church has replaced Israel or that tithing is a part of the Christian life. They get those views from Scripture. I just think they are wrong in how they understand Scriptures in those instances. And they think I'm wrong in disagreeing with them. That's fine.

So it is here. You think that Rom 5 is talking only about human death, and I think it is talking about death in general as faced by all animal life. I think you have misunderstood the passage and you think that I've misunderstood the passage. As I've said before, that's fine.

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 1:38 pm
by RickD
Jac wrote:
Whose sin caused all death, Rick? You're taking me to mean that the first time ANYONE sins that death burst through into creation. I'm saying that is precisely what I disagree with. I'm saying that ADAM's sin is the one the brought death into the world.
And I agree that Adam's sin brought death into the world. The world of humanity. :ebiggrin:
No Jac. Paul's point is that human death can be overcome by Christ. Unless you're saying animals can have eternal life by believing on Christ.

Jac wrote:
We just read Romans differently. I take Romans 8:19-21 to refer to non-human creation, and there is a difference in having "eternal life" and never dying, say, in the jaws of a lion.
Jac, I don't take that to mean only human creation.
Jac wrote:
So it is here. You think that Rom 5 is talking only about human death, and I think it is talking about death in general as faced by all animal life. I think you have misunderstood the passage and you think that I've misunderstood the passage. As I've said before, that's fine.
Jac, read this passage, and tell me why you think it pertains to all animals.

Romans 5:1-21:
5 Therefore, having been justified by faith, [a]we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, 2 through whom also we have obtained our introduction by faith into this grace in which we stand; and we exult in hope of the glory of God. 3 And not only this, but [c]we also exult in our tribulations, knowing that tribulation brings about perseverance; 4 and perseverance, proven character; and proven character, hope; 5 and hope does not disappoint, because the love of God has been poured out within our hearts through the Holy Spirit who was given to us.

6 For while we were still helpless, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly. 7 For one will hardly die for a righteous man; [d]though perhaps for the good man someone would dare even to die. 8 But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. 9 Much more then, having now been justified [e]by His blood, we shall be saved from the wrath of God through Him. 10 For if while we were enemies we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved [f]by His life. 11 And not only this, [g]but we also exult in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the reconciliation.
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned— 13 for [h]until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
18 So then as through one transgression [m]there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness [n]there resulted justification of life to all men. 19 For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous. 20 [o]The Law came in so that the transgression would increase; but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, 21 so that, as sin reigned in death, even so grace would reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.


Jac, if you want to claim animal death is a result of Adam's sin, then you need to make the case from somewhere else. Romans 5 is clearly talking about human death and human redemption.

You are reading animal death into Romans 5. There is no mention of animal death whatsoever. If you can't be honest about this...

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 2:23 pm
by Jac3510
RickD wrote:And I agree that Adam's sin brought death into the world. The world of humanity. :ebiggrin:
No Jac. Paul's point is that human death can be overcome by Christ. Unless you're saying animals can have eternal life by believing on Christ.

Jac wrote:
We just read Romans differently. I take Romans 8:19-21 to refer to non-human creation, and there is a difference in having "eternal life" and never dying, say, in the jaws of a lion.
Jac, I don't take that to mean only human creation.
Then I think you haven't thought very deeply about the connection between Romans 5 and Romans 8. I'll say more about that below.
Jac, read this passage, and tell me why you think it pertains to all animals.

Romans 5:1-21:
.
.
.
Jac, if you want to claim animal death is a result of Adam's sin, then you need to make the case from somewhere else. Romans 5 is clearly talking about human death and human redemption.

You are reading animal death into Romans 5. There is no mention of animal death whatsoever. If you can't be honest about this...
I don't agree that "Romans 5 is clearly talking about human death and human redemption." Asserting that it is doesn't make your case. I can say that it is clearly referring to the totality of creation -- does that make me any more or less correct?

Now, I'm not going to write out an exegesis of Romans 5:12. I've done that elsewhere, and it is rather lengthy. You can read the main entries here and here (though you'll have to forgive the board on the second link, as it killed the Greek text, for whatever reason). The bottom line, however, for those links are as follows:

1. Romans 5 begins an argument that concludes in Romans 8. The same subject matter is in view in both cases. Since the subject matter in Romans 8 is all creation, so too the subject matter in Romans 5 is all creation.

2. That all creation is in view in Romans 5 is evident by the verse itself. Unfortunately, this is one of those very rare cases where you have to get into the Greek to see it. Without getting into it in detail, just go to Biblegateway.com and note how Rom 5:12 is either an awkward sentence or a sentence fragment in all of the major translations. I've suggested the following translation:
  • Because of this, just as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin, in the same way death passed to all men, because all [men] sin.
The important thing here is the contrast between the two key phrases, "Just as . . ." and "even in . . .". I'll offer two paraphrases that highlight the contrast, the first taking seeing only human death in view and the second universal death:
  • 1. "Death came into humanity in the same way it came to humans: by sin."
    2. "Death came into the whole creation in the same way it comes to humans: by sin."
It should be evident that the first understanding doesn't say much . . . it's something of a tautology. The second, however, has meaning, real meaning. The second takes the grammar of the verse seriously. Specifically, it takes the comparative phrases seriously. Since one perfectly acceptable rendition of kosmos is "the entire world," you cannot accuse me of reading INTO the text a particular meaning here. I'm just selecting the meaning that best seems to fit in the linguistic context. I, however, would suggest (gently) that you are reading your theology INTO the text here, because while it is true that "humanity" is an acceptable translation of kosmos, that's only because kosmos refers to humanity by figure of speech (specifically, metonymy -- so "dish" refers not to the whole plate, but the food on it; so by figure of speech, kosmos can, at times, refer not to the whole creation but a part of it, namely, humanity). The problem here is that if you are going to take a term figuratively, then you need linguistic or contextual reasons to argue that the author is not being literal. In this case, no such markers exist, and since no such markers exist, the only place we can justify the figure is your own theology.

So . . . with all respect . . . the only way to get humanity only out of Romans 5:12 is if you just don't read it very closely, divorce it from its broader argument, and import your own theology into the passage.

Again, that's just the highlights. Do check out the two posts I linked to (both from the same thread) for some details.

edit:

I don't want to overdo it, but I think the grammatical point is really important. I found what I think is a particularly good short explanation of the issue here where I said:
  • the comparative is NOT between consequence and result. That wouldn't be a comparative, anyway. Grammatically, that would be a simple if/then and would require a causal word. What you actually have are two DISTINCT statements. Look at them again:

    1. Death came into the world;
    2. Death comes to all men.

    That is what we are comparing. Paul starts with the a better known fact ("just as") . . . the better known fact to his audience is that sin entered the world and then death came through sin. Using their understanding of THAT, he explains to them that ON THAT BASIS, death comes to all men--what basis? That all men sin. Let's use a modern example.

    Suppose you were trying to explain to someone how we know that God exists, and you are using the moral argument. You say this:

    "Ok, John . . . imagine you get caught speeding. You were doing a hundred miles an hour in a fifty. The judge asks you if you are guilty. Now, it doesn't matter that you followed all the other laws of the road, like having on your turn signal and stopping at red lights, does it? You are guilty before him and will be sentenced accordingly, right? Just like that, in the same way, when you stand before God, it won't matter how good you have been, because you will have broke some of His laws, and will be sentenced accordingly!"

    Now, look what you are doing here. You are making a comparison. First, you appeal to something John already understands to help him get something he doesn't understand. You show him something about the modern legal system. Then, comparing the God to the modern legal system (Just as . . . in the same way) you bring the point across you want him to see.

    That is exactly what Paul is doing here. He starts with the well known fact that death came into the world through sin. That his readers get. They know that this world is dying because of sin. On the basis of THAT, he wants them to understand the second half: that they die FOR THE SAME REASON: their own sin. Can you see how your rendering makes Paul's point totally absurd? In your view, Paul is appealing to their knowledge that men die because of their sin to explain to them that men die for their own sin. It's tautological. It makes no sense. It's pointless.
There's just no way to see Paul as talking about humanity in 5:12a. It totally butchers not only the argument he is making in that verse, but it butchers the argument he is making in Romans 5-8--and all of that by invoking a perfectly legitimate word in a figurative way without any suggestion on Paul's part that he is using it figuratively. Really . . . shy of very strong reasons to the contrary, it is abundantly clear that Paul has the entire world in mind in 5:12a.

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 3:00 pm
by RickD
Jac wrote:
I don't agree that "Romans 5 is clearly talking about human death and human redemption." Asserting that it is doesn't make your case. I can say that it is clearly referring to the totality of creation -- does that make me any more or less correct?
It makes you less correct. :pound:

JK Jac. :D I'll get to the rest of your post later. My brain is tired. And, that "Carnivorous animals " thread is one of my favorites. I'll read you arguments again in that thread. Maybe this time they'll be convincing. :lol:

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 3:16 pm
by Jac3510
RickD wrote:
Jac wrote:
I don't agree that "Romans 5 is clearly talking about human death and human redemption." Asserting that it is doesn't make your case. I can say that it is clearly referring to the totality of creation -- does that make me any more or less correct?
It makes you less correct. :pound:
Well played, sir! Alas, I have been outwitted and I hide my face in shame. Cute cats or not, you will always be the klown!
JK Jac. :D I'll get to the rest of your post later. My brain is tired. And, that "Carnivorous animals " thread is one of my favorites. I'll read you arguments again in that thread. Maybe this time they'll be convincing. :lol:
Yeah, I've spent the last couple of days rereading it. That really was one of the better threads I think I've been involved in. Even if you don't agree, I think you'll find a deeper appreciation of both Danny's and DA's arguments. :)

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 4:35 pm
by Kurieuo
Jac3510 wrote:
RickD wrote:And I agree that Adam's sin brought death into the world. The world of humanity. :ebiggrin:
No Jac. Paul's point is that human death can be overcome by Christ. Unless you're saying animals can have eternal life by believing on Christ.

Jac wrote:
We just read Romans differently. I take Romans 8:19-21 to refer to non-human creation, and there is a difference in having "eternal life" and never dying, say, in the jaws of a lion.
Jac, I don't take that to mean only human creation.
Then I think you haven't thought very deeply about the connection between Romans 5 and Romans 8. I'll say more about that below.
Jac, read this passage, and tell me why you think it pertains to all animals.

Romans 5:1-21:
.
.
.
Jac, if you want to claim animal death is a result of Adam's sin, then you need to make the case from somewhere else. Romans 5 is clearly talking about human death and human redemption.

You are reading animal death into Romans 5. There is no mention of animal death whatsoever. If you can't be honest about this...
I don't agree that "Romans 5 is clearly talking about human death and human redemption." Asserting that it is doesn't make your case. I can say that it is clearly referring to the totality of creation -- does that make me any more or less correct?

Now, I'm not going to write out an exegesis of Romans 5:12. I've done that elsewhere, and it is rather lengthy. You can read the main entries here and here (though you'll have to forgive the board on the second link, as it killed the Greek text, for whatever reason). The bottom line, however, for those links are as follows:

1. Romans 5 begins an argument that concludes in Romans 8. The same subject matter is in view in both cases. Since the subject matter in Romans 8 is all creation, so too the subject matter in Romans 5 is all creation.

2. That all creation is in view in Romans 5 is evident by the verse itself. Unfortunately, this is one of those very rare cases where you have to get into the Greek to see it. Without getting into it in detail, just go to Biblegateway.com and note how Rom 5:12 is either an awkward sentence or a sentence fragment in all of the major translations. I've suggested the following translation:
  • Because of this, just as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin, in the same way death passed to all men, because all [men] sin.
The important thing here is the contrast between the two key phrases, "Just as . . ." and "even in . . .". I'll offer two paraphrases that highlight the contrast, the first taking seeing only human death in view and the second universal death:
  • 1. "Death came into humanity in the same way it came to humans: by sin."
    2. "Death came into the whole creation in the same way it comes to humans: by sin."
It should be evident that the first understanding doesn't say much . . . it's something of a tautology. The second, however, has meaning, real meaning. The second takes the grammar of the verse seriously. Specifically, it takes the comparative phrases seriously. Since one perfectly acceptable rendition of kosmos is "the entire world," you cannot accuse me of reading INTO the text a particular meaning here. I'm just selecting the meaning that best seems to fit in the linguistic context. I, however, would suggest (gently) that you are reading your theology INTO the text here, because while it is true that "humanity" is an acceptable translation of kosmos, that's only because kosmos refers to humanity by figure of speech (specifically, metonymy -- so "dish" refers not to the whole plate, but the food on it; so by figure of speech, kosmos can, at times, refer not to the whole creation but a part of it, namely, humanity). The problem here is that if you are going to take a term figuratively, then you need linguistic or contextual reasons to argue that the author is not being literal. In this case, no such markers exist, and since no such markers exist, the only place we can justify the figure is your own theology.

So . . . with all respect . . . the only way to get humanity only out of Romans 5:12 is if you just don't read it very closely, divorce it from its broader argument, and import your own theology into the passage.

Again, that's just the highlights. Do check out the two posts I linked to (both from the same thread) for some details.

edit:

I don't want to overdo it, but I think the grammatical point is really important. I found what I think is a particularly good short explanation of the issue here where I said:
  • the comparative is NOT between consequence and result. That wouldn't be a comparative, anyway. Grammatically, that would be a simple if/then and would require a causal word. What you actually have are two DISTINCT statements. Look at them again:

    1. Death came into the world;
    2. Death comes to all men.

    That is what we are comparing. Paul starts with the a better known fact ("just as") . . . the better known fact to his audience is that sin entered the world and then death came through sin. Using their understanding of THAT, he explains to them that ON THAT BASIS, death comes to all men--what basis? That all men sin. Let's use a modern example.

    Suppose you were trying to explain to someone how we know that God exists, and you are using the moral argument. You say this:

    "Ok, John . . . imagine you get caught speeding. You were doing a hundred miles an hour in a fifty. The judge asks you if you are guilty. Now, it doesn't matter that you followed all the other laws of the road, like having on your turn signal and stopping at red lights, does it? You are guilty before him and will be sentenced accordingly, right? Just like that, in the same way, when you stand before God, it won't matter how good you have been, because you will have broke some of His laws, and will be sentenced accordingly!"

    Now, look what you are doing here. You are making a comparison. First, you appeal to something John already understands to help him get something he doesn't understand. You show him something about the modern legal system. Then, comparing the God to the modern legal system (Just as . . . in the same way) you bring the point across you want him to see.

    That is exactly what Paul is doing here. He starts with the well known fact that death came into the world through sin. That his readers get. They know that this world is dying because of sin. On the basis of THAT, he wants them to understand the second half: that they die FOR THE SAME REASON: their own sin. Can you see how your rendering makes Paul's point totally absurd? In your view, Paul is appealing to their knowledge that men die because of their sin to explain to them that men die for their own sin. It's tautological. It makes no sense. It's pointless.
There's just no way to see Paul as talking about humanity in 5:12a. It totally butchers not only the argument he is making in that verse, but it butchers the argument he is making in Romans 5-8--and all of that by invoking a perfectly legitimate word in a figurative way without any suggestion on Paul's part that he is using it figuratively. Really . . . shy of very strong reasons to the contrary, it is abundantly clear that Paul has the entire world in mind in 5:12a.
Ok, this is really focusing in the one verse, which is never good.

But, Paul places this statement on hold, to give an extended explanation of verse 12 is given in verses 13-17, before then continuing with his train of thought. Best illustrated in the good 'ol KJV:
  • 12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

    13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

    14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

    15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.

    16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.

    17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
There is also no tautology in verse 12, even if it can be used by authors in Scripture as a literary device to make clear their point.

In Paul's extended explanation, there is also nothing of "all of creation" or an extension of "all" to include animals, plants, 2nd law of thermodynamics or the like.

Paul is clearly setting up a comparison, of sin coming into the world through one man and the many experiencing the consequences of sin -- death. And then likewise, grace and gift of righteousness reigning in the many by the one, Jesus Christ. The fuller context gives that.

It seems an abrupt and awkward fit to inject "all of creation" into this passage, in this chapter even where Paul is dealing with the Doctrine of Assurance.

But alas, I doubt we'll see eye-to-eye. y@};-

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 4:57 pm
by Jac3510
Sure, K, that's the standard way commentators talk about the verse, but all that hinges on Paul's sentence being interrupted in verse 12. You have to take it in a way that he doesn't complete his thought--namely, that he has a sentence fragment (as the good ol' KJV so well illustrates ;)). But I hope you would agree that if we can translate the passage without making Paul a bad grammarian and letting him complete his thought, that is preferable.

As it stands, I think the KJV is wrong on several counts. "Wherefore" is not a good translation of dia touto, although not unforgivable. "And so" is a poor rendering of kai houtos, but really only in modern English (because we've largely lost the comparative force of "so" and tend to use it in the sense of "very" or just as an general interjection). "Have sinned" is an awful translation on any level, although I have to give them credit for not falling into the simple "because all sinned" translation that all modern translations employ. I wonder if they offered their translation in attempt to avoid a theological position the modern translation seems to suggest.

Anyway, I think the proper translation is:
  • Because of this, just as through one man sin came into the world (and through sin, death), in the same way death spread to all men, because all sin.
Again, I think any argument that is based on translating Paul in such a way that has him employing very poor grammar ought to be suspect, to put it politely. That reminds me of people who insist that faith is a gift based on Eph 2:8-9, even though the grammar expressly forbids such a view. I mean, if we are going to assume that Paul can't write good Greek, then we really can make him say whatever that we want.

Other than that, if you want to see how the transition and my view generally fits into the broader flow of the book, see the first link I pointed to Rick.

But alas, I doubt we'll see eye-to-eye. y@};-

;)

Seriously, though, it isn't something that I think is particularly important. It's definitely not something people should be breaking fellowship over, Ham's argument's notwithstanding.

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 5:09 pm
by Kurieuo
Chris, think about it though.

It's not like "modern science" is influencing the KJV interpretation; there is no ulterior motive.

It doesn't make me a bad grammatician just because I used a semi-column to divide my thought process. Paul often interjects to elaborate, because he is a big-time reasoner and wants to make sure his audience is following his logic.

And verse 12 on its own still isn't a tautology for in the first half you have the "one" and in the second you have the "many". Instead of the strawman paraphrasing:
  • 1. "Death came into humanity in the same way it came to humans: by sin."
which makes it seem tautologous and as such unnecessarily repetative and perhaps even meaningless... a more accurate paraphrase would be something like:
  • 1'. "Death was a consquence of the sin of one man, but passed to all men because all sinned."
Question to you and the reader: Which of the paraphrasing of verse 12, including your own, best fits within the fuller passage of chapter 5?

I've read Romans 5 numerous times before any axe to grind on this issue, my thoughts with a straight-forward reading is that here Paul deals with the doctrine of original sin.

I would have readily denied "original sin" were it not for passages like this.

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 5:15 pm
by RickD
Jac wrote:
Anyway, I think the proper translation is:

Because of this, just as through one man sin came into the world (and through sin, death), in the same way death spread to all men, because all sin.
Jac, just a quick note. I don't think your translation changes anything for me.
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—
nasb

12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
KJV

12 Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned—
NIV

I don't see a difference in the context of Romans 5. But, I do see what you're saying about Ephesians 2:8-9.

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 5:22 pm
by Jac3510
K,

But he's NOT dealing with original sin. As to your question, my paraphrase fits the flow of the book (much) better (as I've argued in some detail here), and especially the flow of chapters 5-8 better. (As an aside, you would do well to deny original sin, but that's another matter entirely.) And science has nothing to do with this passage. Look, I've offered a translation that is grammatically correct -- it let's Paul complete his though. The standard translations (any of them -- the KJV, the NIV, the NASB, the ESV), they ALL have Paul's thought being interrupted. He ends up with a sentence fragment, which they explain away by saying that Paul just picks up his thought again in verse 18.

But that's just not true. He doesn't pick up the thought in 18. It's a totally new sentence, and the word that begins in 18 is not found in 12. In fact, it's the word Paul always uses to start a NEW section (oun, if you want to know -- it means, "Therefore"). So before you argue that the comparison in 5:12a is found somewhere in 13-17. you have to argue that it is NOT found in 12b, which to do that you have to argue (with modern translators) that Paul is a bad grammarian, that he has a sentence fragment here.

I'm sorry, but that just doesn't impress me.

As to my supposed straw man, notice that your paraphrase includes no comparative statements at all (interestingly, Danny made the same argument and tried that, too). You just have Paul making an assertion--death came into humanity by sin and it passes to all men by sin. But that's not what the text says. It doesn't take comparison Paul is making literally. At least in my "straw man," I was faithful to the idea of the verse--it's making a comparison. If my argument is a straw man, then, you would do well to adopt it as your own argument, because it's far more generous in terms of faithfulness to the text than your own rendition.

Look, when I say Paul is making a comparison, I'm not just drawing an inference. Just like we have if/then constructions where the if is the antecedent and the then is the consequent, so too Paul uses two comparative clauses here. You don't need to read Greek to see that. "Just as . . . in the same way." However you take this verse, you have to make sure that the second clause is comparable to the first, that the first clause expresses a BETTER KNOWN truth so that the second LESSER known truth is more easily apprehended. I just don't see how your view does any of that.

-----------------------

Rick,

The problem with those translations is that they don't have Paul making a comparison of a lesser known truth (12b) to a greater known truth (12a). They have him starting a comparison and never finishing it, since they have him interrupting his own thoughts starting with verse 13.

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 5:30 pm
by RickD
Jac wrote:
Rick,

The problem with those translations is that they don't have Paul making a comparison of a lesser known truth (12b) to a greater known truth (12a). They have him starting a comparison and never finishing it, since they have him interrupting his own thoughts starting with verse 13.
And here's where you lost me :lol:



Jac, I warned you, that if you make it anything other than simple, you'll lose me. :crying:

Re: Death before Adam & Eve's sin ?

Posted: Mon May 06, 2013 6:16 pm
by Jac3510
Meh, I guess I just get an F for explanation.

Let me try this -- suppose you said, "Just like when you speed you have broke the law, in the same way when you cheat you've broken God's law." That's a simple statement. It compares speeding with cheating and tries to show a comparison between breaking man's law and breaking God's. The second clause (breaking God's law) is the lesser understood idea--it's compared to the first clause (breaking the speed limit), which is the better understood law. You would use that simple comparison for something like helping someone understand their guilt before God.

Okay, Rom 5:12 has exactly the same structure. It's saying, "Just like death came into the kosmos though sin, in the same way also it spread through humans by sin." We have two clauses that are being compared to each other. The first is the better understood, the latter the lesser understood. The purpose is to help us understand the second clause by comparing it to the first clause.

The problem you and I have is that we get the second clause better than we get the first clause. We already get the fact that we die because we sin. That's well ingrained in our theology. It wasn't so much, however, for the first readers. They needed that explained to them. So what Paul DID do was appeal to something that they all already knew, namely, that the world was dying and decaying thanks to Adam's sin (cf. Rom 8:19-21, where he concludes this argument). That was a widely held belief, which is evident by reading the rabbinic literature.

But let's say that kosmos refers to humanity and not to the creation. Now the "comparison" would be more like, "Just like death came into humanity by sin, in the same way it also spreads to humans by sin." Do you see how there's no comparison there? The second clause is just restating the first. It totally destroys the structure of the sentence. To go back to what I first said in this post, that would be like saying, "Just like when you cheat you break God's law, in the same way liars break God's law." That would be silly to say.

So, "Just like it would be silly to say 'Just like those who lie break God's law, so liars break God's law,' in the same way it would be silly to say 'Just as death came into humanity through sin, so death spread to humans through sin.'"

Is that clearer?