Re: Do YECs accept "ordinary days"?
Posted: Sun Jul 26, 2015 7:29 pm
YEC has been hammered here, but I do want to repeat that there is a disadvantage to Day-Age.
That is, if YEC does not hold to an ordinary day, then Day-Age doesn't win by default (under a literal interpretation).
A surface level reading without any deep reflection I think would lead most to believe while reading the text for the first time, that the writer has ordinary days in mind. And by "ordinary day", I mean in the very sense of that term with a morning and evening.
Only upon deeper reflection might one ponder days and how a morning could exist on the first day (where was God located on Earth?), or how days could exist if it is believed the Sun is created on day 4. And so we enter into interpretations that try to replace "ordinary day" with a supernatural 24-hour day, or day-age.
SO, given issues with existing interpretations that replace a true "ordinary day" with something other (YEC and Day-Agers),
then there seems to me room left for an interpretation which does seriously take ALL the days in Genesis 1 to be intended as truly being "ordinary days".
Those who may have followed my hermeneutics thread and discussion with Jac might know what I have in mind.
I believe in an interpretation where Moses' intention for "day" in Genesis 1 is actually foundationally neutral to both sides.
Meaning, if it is your cup of tea to believe the days are 24 hours well that's up to you.
On the other hand, if you want to believe the days represent ages, well that too is up to you.
In Genesis 1 Moses probably intended an "ordinary day" in any simple surface-level reading. He doesn't really intend to have the reader probe further into what these look like (e.g., what's a day without the Sun, is sunlight there on day 1 or day 4, etc). Moses therefore doesn't really care about what to make of such matters.
The question then is: If Moses is happy for the reader to just believe a true ordinary solar day is intended for all days, then make what you will of how to fit in God creating light and the Sun, but it seems to me that Moses doesn't want us to think more deeply other than an ordinary dawn to dusk day of work, evening and morning - one day. That's the structure in Genesis 1, right? Even for the first three days, an evening and morning! Moses would surely expect some readers to believe he intends solar days, and yet he does not seek to clarify how such can fit in.
NOW, if Moses is not concerned about the reader deeply thinking on what a day is beyond an ordinary dawn-to-dusk day, then why should we be so concerned?
Secondly, there must be something more to Genesis 1 that Moses is more concerned about given he's not phased at all by apparent possible difficulties caused in his writings in just assuming real ordinary solar days .
It seems obvious to me now, having participated in this debate for almost 20 years, that Moses' primary concern about illustrating the one true God was head of all creation. ALL of us will surely agree here, that above everything else, that's the main message of importance!
The 6-1 formulation of days represent the Sabbath, the seventh day of which is holy. It was a commandment to keep the Sabbath, because it pointed to God's creative work. To break the sabbath days for Israel was considered blasphemy. (Ezekiel 20:12-17) It was to be set a part and considered holy! Why? Because keeping the sabbath days represented acknowledging God in all His power as the one rightful Lord of all creation.
This is the main reason I see why sabbaths were holy. Why Israel were commanded to respect them, if God was truly their God, and not the feeble so-called creator gods of surrounding nations (like Phil points out of Egypt). For Israel not to keep sabbath days was to therefore reject and profane God, God who they entered into a promise with to be His people and He their God.
It is ironic that Jesus, being the Creator (John 1), was therefore challenged by the Pharisees for him and his followers breaking a sabbath day.
How did Jesus respond? The Sabbath was created for man, not man for the Sabbath. So the Son of Man [Jesus] is Lord of the Sabbath.
There is only one rightful Lord of the Sabbath. In saying this, Jesus is identifying Himself the Lord of all Creation!
As Creator, it is His right to do as His pleases, since the Sabbath was set in place to respect the one true Creator as Lord over all.
So then, I argue Moses' concern is more found in the 6-1 pattern of days and Sabbatical intent that points to and highlights Israel's God as Lord over all creation. Therefore Moses is quite happy to employ the use of ordinary days without further reflection upon any intended duration, or how they be reconciled as true solar days in God's creative acts.
That is, if YEC does not hold to an ordinary day, then Day-Age doesn't win by default (under a literal interpretation).
A surface level reading without any deep reflection I think would lead most to believe while reading the text for the first time, that the writer has ordinary days in mind. And by "ordinary day", I mean in the very sense of that term with a morning and evening.
Only upon deeper reflection might one ponder days and how a morning could exist on the first day (where was God located on Earth?), or how days could exist if it is believed the Sun is created on day 4. And so we enter into interpretations that try to replace "ordinary day" with a supernatural 24-hour day, or day-age.
SO, given issues with existing interpretations that replace a true "ordinary day" with something other (YEC and Day-Agers),
then there seems to me room left for an interpretation which does seriously take ALL the days in Genesis 1 to be intended as truly being "ordinary days".
Those who may have followed my hermeneutics thread and discussion with Jac might know what I have in mind.
I believe in an interpretation where Moses' intention for "day" in Genesis 1 is actually foundationally neutral to both sides.
Meaning, if it is your cup of tea to believe the days are 24 hours well that's up to you.
On the other hand, if you want to believe the days represent ages, well that too is up to you.
In Genesis 1 Moses probably intended an "ordinary day" in any simple surface-level reading. He doesn't really intend to have the reader probe further into what these look like (e.g., what's a day without the Sun, is sunlight there on day 1 or day 4, etc). Moses therefore doesn't really care about what to make of such matters.
The question then is: If Moses is happy for the reader to just believe a true ordinary solar day is intended for all days, then make what you will of how to fit in God creating light and the Sun, but it seems to me that Moses doesn't want us to think more deeply other than an ordinary dawn to dusk day of work, evening and morning - one day. That's the structure in Genesis 1, right? Even for the first three days, an evening and morning! Moses would surely expect some readers to believe he intends solar days, and yet he does not seek to clarify how such can fit in.
NOW, if Moses is not concerned about the reader deeply thinking on what a day is beyond an ordinary dawn-to-dusk day, then why should we be so concerned?
Secondly, there must be something more to Genesis 1 that Moses is more concerned about given he's not phased at all by apparent possible difficulties caused in his writings in just assuming real ordinary solar days .
It seems obvious to me now, having participated in this debate for almost 20 years, that Moses' primary concern about illustrating the one true God was head of all creation. ALL of us will surely agree here, that above everything else, that's the main message of importance!
The 6-1 formulation of days represent the Sabbath, the seventh day of which is holy. It was a commandment to keep the Sabbath, because it pointed to God's creative work. To break the sabbath days for Israel was considered blasphemy. (Ezekiel 20:12-17) It was to be set a part and considered holy! Why? Because keeping the sabbath days represented acknowledging God in all His power as the one rightful Lord of all creation.
This is the main reason I see why sabbaths were holy. Why Israel were commanded to respect them, if God was truly their God, and not the feeble so-called creator gods of surrounding nations (like Phil points out of Egypt). For Israel not to keep sabbath days was to therefore reject and profane God, God who they entered into a promise with to be His people and He their God.
It is ironic that Jesus, being the Creator (John 1), was therefore challenged by the Pharisees for him and his followers breaking a sabbath day.
How did Jesus respond? The Sabbath was created for man, not man for the Sabbath. So the Son of Man [Jesus] is Lord of the Sabbath.
There is only one rightful Lord of the Sabbath. In saying this, Jesus is identifying Himself the Lord of all Creation!
As Creator, it is His right to do as His pleases, since the Sabbath was set in place to respect the one true Creator as Lord over all.
So then, I argue Moses' concern is more found in the 6-1 pattern of days and Sabbatical intent that points to and highlights Israel's God as Lord over all creation. Therefore Moses is quite happy to employ the use of ordinary days without further reflection upon any intended duration, or how they be reconciled as true solar days in God's creative acts.