Re: Omniscience and free will
Posted: Thu Sep 03, 2009 12:42 pm
Objective: being the object of perception or thought; belonging to the object of thought rather than to the thinking subject.How about defining objective morality for me.
Objective morality is that system of right and wrong upon which the mind dwells and draws meaning from. Thus, the meanings of right and wrong are not imputed to things by the mind, but rather they are drawn from them by the mind.
An illustration:
Suppose there are three apples on the table. Both the number of pieces of fruit and the kind of fruit before me are objective facts. My mind does not decide that there are three apples. It discoveres something about reality: namely, that there are three apples. If I said there were four bananas, you could tell me, rightly so, that I was mistaken.
Compare this to a subjective idea: the best flavor of ice cream. The meaning of "best" is determined by my mind. It is a subjective fact as it is telling you something about my thought process. You cannot tell me I am wrong if I say the best is chocolate whereas you say the best is vanilla. In fact, what I am saying with my assertion is, "My favorite flavor of ice cream is X."
Now, the question whether or not morality is objective or subjective. If subjective, then when you say, "Murder is wrong," all you are really saying is, "I do not like murder." I cannot argue that you are correct or not. You are correct simply because you are telling me something about yourself. However, if morality is objective, then when I say, "Murder is wrong," I am not speaking about my personal preferences. I am speaking about reality in itself, apart from what I believe about it. Thus, if I say, "Murder is not wrong," only if morality is objective can you tell me that I am mistaken.
Nope, and I never will. I don't care about absolute morality. No sophisticated theist argues in favor of of absolute morality. We argue in favor of objective morality.Didn't you use murder as an example of absolute morality?
I'm only asking on what basis murder is objective wrong.Would you like to edit this so it makes sense?
I assume you agree that you can't tell me that my assertions about the best flavor of ice cream are WRONG--that is, incorrect or mistaken. On what basis, then, would you tell me that my assertions about the moral rightness or wrongness of something is incorrect or mistaken?
If society legalizes murder, would you then believe that it was morally permissible, or would you think that society was wrong? If murder was still wrong, and society had legalized murder, then on what basis, beyond what you LIKE, would you say they were incorrect in their moral assessment?Society's laws.
Because objectivity by definition requires a feature to be in the thing itself and not in the mind. If God does not exist, then morality is not something that exists independently of the human mind, and thus, it must be subjective. If God does exist, then morality exists independently of the human mind (it exists in the mind of God), and we DISCOVER that fact.Why so?
Unlike you, I believe in objective morality. So the effect that mine has is exactly the same effect as arguing over how many apples are on a table. If there are three and you say four, then I am telling you that you are WRONG. You are MISTAKEN. I don't care how much you believe it, it IS NOT TRUE. It's a good thing we can recognize such objective facts, too. Take building codes. They are based on the fact that we can recognize objective reality. So if someone builds a house that is not up to code, I can sue them and have it condemned, because I can know that it is unsafe.What effect does YOUR value system have on anyone else?
Thus, I can stand up and condemn slavery as an abomination. You can't (and be logically consistent). All you can do is stand up and scream about how much you don't like it. That has about as much meaning as me trying to get a house condemned, not because it is unsafe, but because I don't like it.
Of course I am.How is this any different under your value system? ... and you ARE trying to force your morality on others.
Wayne, you are, too. What I am trying to get you to see is that you are contradicting yourself. On one hand, you know that there is objective morality. You live by it. You call things like torture and murder wrong, and if someone says that they are right, then you tell them (correctly) that they are mistaken. But then you go and say that objective morality can exist only in the human mind, which is a logical absurdity. If something ONLY exists in your mind, then it, BY DEFINITION, is subjective!
We all try to force our morality on one another. That's because we all KNOW that morality is objective. What I am telling is that if morality is SUBJECTIVE, then you have NO RIGHT to tell anyone else they are wrong. It would be a stupid statement. Consider the following conversation:
Me: I like chocolate ice cream.
You: NO YOU DON'T!
Me: Of course I do. I think it is the best!
You: NO YOU IDIOT YOU DO NOT BECAUSE I THINK CHOCOLATE IS THE BEST
You would NEVER say something so stupid as the above because you know that you can't call a subjective statement WRONG. If God doesn't exist, then morality is strictly subjective, and thus, NOTHING CAN BE WRONG.
Why is reality real? Why is length, width, or depth real?Why is "objective morality" real?
It hasn't changed over time. People have argued about what really is right and wrong. People have disagreed about what is right and wrong. But right and wrong itself hasn't changed.If morality is defined by God why has what is "right" and "wrong" changed over time? Did God change His mind?
Let me ask you this: if the age of the universe is an objective fact, then why has it changed over time?
That's a stupid question. It hasn't. But people's ideas about it have. Same with morality. God hasn't changed, but people's ideas have. But notice, Wayne: this can ONLY be true if morality is objective. How can people argue if something is really wrong or wrong if nothing is right or wrong? Consider the following argument:
Me: Slavery is morally acceptable.
You: What is wrong with you. No it isn't. It's wrong.
Me: Sure it is, because a, b, and c.
You: No, you are wrong. a isn't a good reason because a'; b isn't a good reason because b'; c isn't a good reason because c'. Actually, it is wrong because x, y, and z.
Notice what is going on here. We aren't arguing about personal opinion. We are arguing about an objective FACT. But, again, that can only exist if morality exists independently of the human mind as an object of contemplation. That requires a God.
I expressly said that they did not kill "in the name of" atheism. I made a major point out of that. Are you going to be one of these idiots who argues for the sake of arguing and attributes to people statements that they don't hold and/or have already expressly repudiated? Or are you going to be one of these people who argues with someone without reading and comprehending their points? Why are you bringing up an argument against me that I've already repudiated?The murders they committed weren't perpetrated in the name of atheism, they were the result of a corrupt regime. Some theistic regimes use religion as a weapon to incite and "justify" murders and torture (inquisition, radical Islam, ... ).
I have a logical basis to do so. Whether he stops or not is his choice. You don't. If you reject God, then morality only exists in the human mind.Sure I can tell him. I doubt that my telling him will stop him.
You can also tell him. Do you really think doing so have any more effect?
Why should he base his behavior on your personal beliefs? Obviously, he shouldn't.
Why should he base his behavior on an objective fact? Because that is reality. I can inform him that he has misunderstood reality. Whether or not he chooses to act in accordance with reality is up to him.
I'm not talking about the effects of condemnation. I'm talking about the logical basis for it. I have one. You don't. I'm not talking about enforcing it, either. God will, and does, do that. I'm, again, talking about the logical basis for it.Either of us can condemn him. The effect on him will be the same regardless of which of us condemns him. If God does define a specific morality, shouldn't He be responsible for enforcing it? Why does He need to rely on "helpers" to tell us what he meant to say.
You don't have a logical basis to condemn in others as wrong what you simply don't like. I, on the other hand, am not condemning what I just don't like. I am condemning what is objectively wrong in and of itself, regardless of what I or anyone else thinks about it.
I couldn't care less WHERE our code of conduct came from. Let's assume Darwinian evolution is true in its fullest extent. Let's assume that I got my morality from a combination of evolution and culture. Fine. That doesn't mean that morality is true or false, however. Supposedly, we got our belief in God from a combination of evolution and culture. Does that mean that He does or does not exist? Of course not. It would be a genetic fallacy to argue either way on that.In a nutshell, you you seem to believe man is incapable of developing a viable code of conduct and thus our code must have come from God (please correct me if I'm reading you wrong). I believe our codes of conduct (and there are many, each culture has a variation, and most have changed over time) originated from the primitive but effective codes that are necessary to keep any group of social animals together and functioning for the common good. Human intelligence and adaptability have allowed us to refine our codes over time.
THAT is why I don't argue for absolute morality. You are right that moral values have changed over time. I have no problem with that. But the reason I can look at other cultures that have a different moral system from me--say, with early American slavery--and condemn it is because THEY WERE WRONG. THEY MISUNDERSTOOD MORALITY. THEY MADE INCORRECT STATEMENTS.
You can't say that. All you can say it that they had a different value system than you do. You have no LOGICAL basis on which to condemn them. I do. The fact that you condemn them anyway shows that you are borrowing from theism. You can't have objective morality without God, but you assume it anyway and deny its necessary source. You are being logically incoherent. That's plain irrational. This is why I repeatedly say: ATHEISM IS IRRATIONAL.
If morality is defined by man, then IT IS NOT OBJECTIVE, and this by definition. If morality is defined by man, then murder isn't wrong, because what if men come along and say, "I declare murder good!" Then, by definition, it is good! You can't say that it is wrong, and thus, you can't say you think that they are wrong. All you can say is that you personally don't like it.If God had defined morality, it seems to me that He could have done so on the first try - in other words a God-based morality should be constant throughout time and across cultures. On the other hand, if morality was defined by man, it would most likely vary between cultures and each culture would tend to refine their morality over time.
This goes all the way back to my first point. If no God exists, then nothing can be right or wrong. In order for right and wrong to exist, God must exist.