Beanybag wrote:Certainly, and that's all I mean to say. I don't mean to critisize divine simplicity, but applying that attribute to the God of the bible certainly raises some questions when you treat all these properties as equivalent and infinite. How does goodness speak? How does morality die and then rise from the grave? How does logic love? It's a strange bag that leaves me wanting for a more concrete explanation (which some think isn't possible due to God's infinite nature). I'm not trying to dismiss it or challenge it in this thread, I simply want most to know what other understandings of morality people have here.
But none of those are particularly difficult questions. When we talk of God's speaking or loving or rising from the grave, we are talking about His act from a particular perspective. So God is
good insofar as we consider His existence under its notion of desirability. He "speaks" (which I would hasten to add is an anthropomorphism) insofar as He reveals His will to others. The fact that many call that will "good" is evidence that the two are only differentiated in the mind, not in reality. He rose from the grave in His human nature, not His divine nature. He "loves" (again, an anthropomorphism, and more specifically, an anthropopathism) insofar as we benefit from His will. Again, all of this is very elementary. It is only difficult (if at all) to the modern mind, and that because we have an anthropomorphic view of God--we want a God who, like us, is composed of various parts--who does this rather than that; who speaks and thinks (discursively) and feels and emotes and desires, etc. That isn't God. And if you think it is, that's fine, then you'll have some other very serious problems to account for (e.g., Euthyphro).
For 2000 years? I'm not sure if it's been that firmly held for that long. There was a controversy sometime ago about the trinity and they only narrowly decided that the trinity was in fact one. There's been many other such disputes along the way. I think it's good to recognize that there may be other explanations and I'm just trying to hear them.
At least! Aristotle taught long before the Church that God was simple (in fact, Aristotle went on to point out that simplicity of the soul!).
Isn't that what I said, though? I simply mean that the objective or subjective grounding isn't the important part - no matter the grounding people will reject morality. We shouldn't be concerned about whether or not morality is objective or subjective because people will still reject it, the choice to be moral is a choice all the same.
No, that isn't what you said. I'm not talking about people rejecting morality,
because no one does that. You said that some people reject divine simplicity generally, and specifically in the context of providing that as a grounding for morality. If you are really just trying to find out what people believe (which, no offense, I doubt), then your remark that some people reject DS is unrelated
at best. So what? You're just pointing out the obvious. You could have said the same thing to Paul or 1/137 or anyone else. But when Byblos suggested DS as a proper grounding--which is the right answer--your response is that some don't accept that grounding? What is or was the point of that response?
I suppose that's the problem, however. Our reason leads us to different conclusions. I simply want to know what conclusion he has reached. Saying morality is reason doesn't tell me whether or not he believes, say, donating blood to be good or bad. That's something that would be rather easy for me to judge ethically, but I can't seem to apply the same rules when trying to understand Paul's morality.
Now you are changing the question. You wanted to know what morality
is. That's an ontological question. Now you are changing the question to how we know in any specific situation what is right or wrong. That would be like me asking, "What
is the US Tax Code?" and being told that it is a document containing all the tax regulations that our representatives have come up with over the years, and then me retorting, "Yes, but that doesn't tell me whether my gift to ABC Organization is tax deductible!!1!1"
As I said before, you need to keep separate epistemological and ontological questions. Certainly, our ontology of morality will suggest, if not entail, epistemological criteria. But the two issues are not identical. If, then, you want to know how we know this right and that is wrong, then you need to ask about that specific situation and let people provide you their answers. You can then, if you like, as about the epistemological criteria they used to come up with that answer. And then, if you really want to get technical, you can go on to ask what ontology of morality that criteria suggests (if any). But all that goes back to my original reply in this thread in distinguishing between ethics and morals, where ethics is the science of morality and morality is the concrete matter of proper behavior directed toward what is right and good.
I am not trying to say it is unpersuasive or fails. I am only trying to understand what other people believe.
Then now you know that, historically, the Church has taught that morality is identical with God, and this they ground and find coherence in His nature, which itself is grounded in the doctrine of divine simplicity. You also know that many in modern times have rejected that view, and that serious problems with the nature of morality (and other issues, too!) have arisen precisely due to that rejection. Those of us who adhere to the classical doctrine have no need to worry about such problems. We look at all the fuss and shrug our shoulders, because they are only a problem if you accept notions about God and morality that have been historically rejected.