Oh, great, Felgar, so maybe you can help me get some things I didn't quite understand. I'm not particularly interested in something like denying the existence of a guy named Jesus who did this and that. But for me there is a reasonable doubt and especially when I'm confronted with a text like the one you present, totally one sided, where he exposes reasons for credibility but hides completely the reasons for discrediting. It is so one-sided that the author shamelessly affirms
Skeptics and liberal Christian scholars both seek to date the New Testament books as late first century or early second century writings.
On the other hand, maybe I went too far speaking about "plain lies", because a plain lie means false data when my intention was more towards "false argument". Sorry, then,
noblesse obligue. I do spot some inaccuracies in the text, but I cannot check the whole amount of data at this very moment. I will, anyway, because I'm always interested in different sources.
Well, let's take a look then, because I have no problem with the information presented. The earlier section I referred to is the meat of the support for authenticity.
Well, as long as we don't loose sight of the main question here... Authority is given to the bible "as far as Jesus is concerned simply because it was written by men who knew him". For starters, a claim that the historicity of the occurrences in the NT are true due to the fact that there are multiple texts of it to bear the same record, is not a serious one. Since we don't have any autographs and suspicion of fabrication and forgery is heavy on the first three centuries after the alleged death of Jesus, it's not the quantity but the quality what matters. The information you present says "There are 5,664 Greek manuscripts some dating as early as 125 A. D." Correct me if I'm wrong, please, but I found in the Catholic Encyclopedia that the older papyrus we have is Oxyrhyncus Pap. 657, from the third-fourth century and it preserves to us about a third of the Epistle to the Hebrews. Far from complete.
Doesn't matter, in the end. The traditional Church has portrayed the authors of the Gospels as the apostles Mark, Luke, Matthew, & John, but scholars know from critical textural research that there simply occurs no evidence that the gospel authors could have served as the apostles described in the Gospel stories. These Gospels did not come into the Bible as original and authoritative from the authors themselves, but rather from the influence of early church fathers, especially Irenaeus of Lyon who lived in the middle of the second century. Then of course, many many scholars admit they have no reason to doubt about some Epistles (not all) from St. Paul, but again, this should be hearsay comments, as Paul neither actually knew Jesus nor he witnessed his deeds.
So John had information about the buildings in Jerusalem that were later destroyed.
This is a non sequitur, I'm afraid, and the writer knows. Imagine that I claim the historic existence of Gito (from Petronius' Satyricon) because archaeologists suddenly found a mansion in Mount Aventinus. Although the New Testament mentions various cities, geological sites, kings and people that existed or lived during the alleged life of Jesus, these descriptions cannot serve as evidence for the existence of Jesus anymore than works of fiction that include recognizable locations, and make mention of actual people. Or, to invert the argument, Herod the Great was a real king, but he did not massacre any babies, do this only proves that the Gospel of Matthew is a fake?
The Book of Acts ends with Paul in Rome under house arrest in 62 A.D. In 64 A.D., Nero blamed and persecuted the Christians for the fire the burned down the city of Rome. Paul himself was martyred by 65 A.D. in Rome. Again, neither the terrible persecution of the Christians in Rome nor Paul's martyrdom are mentioned.
These are facts to be disputed, yes. But the argument is what I just don't get. If the terrible persecution of Christians or Paul's martyrdom are not mentioned, it could either be deducted that both events never happened. Do the author suggests that the Acts were written in between 62 and 64?
The earliest manuscripts we have of major portions of the New Testament are p 45, p 46, p66, and p 75, and they date from 175-250 A. D. The early church fathers (97-180 A.D.) bear witness to even earlier New Testament manuscripts by quoting from all but one of the New Testament books.
Isn't this a contradiction? He had said before that the earlier one was from 125. Anyway, what does he mean with "p 45, p 46, p66, and p 75", which collection, which codex? Is by his standards the one non credited book of the NT false? Which one is it? Apart from this, I don't know why should we trust the early church fathers, since -as Jim Walker puts it- "Since the fathers of the Church possessed the texts and determined what would appear in the Bible, there occurred plenty of opportunity and motive to change, modify, or create texts that might bolster the position of the Church or the members of the Church themselves".
What about the contradictions within the four Gospels, he doesn't mention that at all. The four accounts of the Resurrection differ heavily among them, shouldn't this be taken as negative proof of witnessing?