BryanH wrote:I already answered this a few time by now: something is correct if the majority says it's correct and if society chooses to enforce that rule.
Fine, but you didn't address examples I provided, which puts this to the test.
But as a conclusion: there are MORAL RULES which are ENFORCED. Why do you you think we need enforcing? Because people have objective morality right? If they would have that, we wouldn't need enforcing.
That doesn't logically follow. Sorry. If OM exist, then it exist outside of man. It's like saying, if math interprets objective reality then students will not need instructors.
I told you that moral rules don't just appear out of thin air. Societies make up rules. You already have your answer. Look around and tell me the answer for your question.
Bryan, for the umpteenth time. that is not in question. It isn't debatable whether societies make up rules, they do. The question is how do we KNOW the rules are CORRECT? Saying we know what is correct because people decide what is correct is begging the question. It leaves the word correct (right/wrong/good/bad) devoid of any meaning. Completely arbitrary. What is correct one day maybe incorrect the next.
For example (which you will probably ignore) Slavery. In the 1800s slavery was a societal norm in the Americas and protected under the law. At one time the majority of people viewed it as acceptable. So, the question is this. Were abolitionists CORRECT to oppose slavery? Was slavery in this sense WRONG, or is it simply arbitrary and up to personal preference? If the majority rule as you say then correct has already been determined. If it is arbitrary then couldn't we just as easily say the abolitionists were wrong by attempting to force their moral ethic on slave holders? Under your worldview, I don't see how you can say otherwise. Now, let's put yourself in the scenario. You are a person living in 1810. Slavery is overwhelmingly supported and deemed morally acceptable. Since it is so, would you say it is morally equal to fall in line with society versus seeking abolition and that one position has no more moral truth than the other?
No matter how you spin it, there is always subjectivity. How can you be objective?
But the most important and funny thing: what's the point of OM if you as a human being are subjective.
Yes, people are subjective. They have things they subjectively prefer. Many times we've given the example of vanilla and chocolate. So, I could never say that vanilla is better than chocolate, only that I prefer it. Actually, I could say it, it would just be rhetoric. So, what if everyone in a town likes vanilla and hates chocolate, then a new person moves to town and they like chocolate but hate vanilla. Is this person wrong? Of course not. So, I'm not saying people can't be subjective. However when we say WRONG, what does that word mean? What does it refer to? If there is no OM, then it is simply a synonym for "not preferred." So, is that what we mean when we say that torturing children for fun is wrong? Are we saying, "I don't prefer it. But, someone else may, so it isn't objectively wrong. If the majority prefer it, then it's right." ? Uh, no, we aren't saying that. If you are, then ultimately someone who prefers vanilla is no different than someone who prefers to torture children for pleasure.
You are not designed that way.
You infer a designer? Why? Because if we are in fact designed, then there is something outside of man (a designer), and thus an objective source. And this is the objective sense that is strong. That human existance is not a coincidence of unguided natural forces. If it is, then even if the GR is objective in the weak sense, it is meaningless.
The GR basically explains how the education or moral values works in a modern society.
Sure. Again it isn't a matter of how we know moral values, but when we use words such as 'right' and 'wrong' just what do those words refer to.
For example many cultures through time have rejected the GR in place of other moral ethics. Are you saying there is no objective difference in the GR versus 'kill or be killed'?
Again Bryan, if you are
right (and by your own admission that word holds no intrinsic value) then your opinion, like mine is subjective. (Not really any disagreement there.) So, your opinion on morals being subjective has no more value than the opinion that moral values exist independent of the human mind. By that logic you wouldn't even have a motive to argue your position. You see, you really think that you are
right, that morals are ONLY subjective. Yet you present that point as if it is objectively true. Which of course is contradictory and self-defeating. If there is no objective truth, moral or otherwise, then all opinions are subjective and no basis outside of individual preference. So, following your line of thinking, if the majority of people say that morality is objective then it becomes so. That of course is absurd. You might even agree and then argue against it, but only because you refuse to follow your logic where it leads.
You can keep saying people and society do things subjectively. I agree. But, that is not where the core of the issue is addressed. It's meaningless to the discussion, because we both agree.