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Posted: Mon Jun 11, 2007 6:23 pm
by Canuckster1127
You've received a response to the claim that ordinals always mean 24 hours and been shown with verses referenced that that claim is false.

Do you have a rebuttal to that or do you accept that that claim is not substantiated?

You've indicated as well that you accept that yom could be used in the sense of a longer period of time and that your position at this time is undecided between YEC and OEC based on textual considerations, unless I'm misunderstanding your position.

It seems to me more and more that you are working on the assumption that the most contrary explanation to science is what you favor simply on the basis that it must be accepted purely on faith and somehow leads more to God's glory.

Is that an accurate assessment?

Posted: Mon Jun 11, 2007 6:27 pm
by zoegirl
Forum Monk

clearly your intent is that these other words would be used to imply long periods of time such as would be found in Genesis 1 were that the intent of God's inspiration to Moses. Canuckster's question refers to whether those words ARE used in that context, not whether they could be. Clearly, if these words are so clear, they would certainly be used in other uses in Genesis.

Why avoid answering his question by nitpicking his original question? This goes to show HOW the words were used at that time.

Posted: Mon Jun 11, 2007 6:58 pm
by Forum Monk
Canuckster1127 wrote:You've received a response to the claim that ordinals always mean 24 hours and been shown with verses referenced that that claim is false.

Do you have a rebuttal to that or do you accept that that claim is not substantiated?
The claim of many that ordinals does not always mean ordinary days, in my opinion, is based on poor rationale and incorrect translation of the bible, in the context of Genesis 1 & 2. I have pointed out many times and been ignored that evening and morning mean evening an moring and that construction with the ordinal day can be interpreted no other way. I have shown corroborating evidence repeatedly of my claim and I have shown how even the hebrews interpret their own language as ordinary days. It was never meant to convey another meaning and to claim it does is a stretch in order to harmonize a pre-existing scientific framework. If people like assumptions, I repeat my challenge to read Genesis without the mind-set and deduce Moses meant billions of years or even thousands of years (a period of time no one can deny was comprehensible to ancient hebrews). Its impossible. If further rebuttal is needed, I will show plenty of rebuttal, and I will not have to use a single YEC website or opinion to do so.
You've indicated as well that you accept that yom could be used in the sense of a longer period of time and that your position at this time is undecided between YEC and OEC based on textual considerations, unless I'm misunderstanding your position.
I have not indicated that yowm can mean anything other than ordinary days as used in Genesis 1 & 2. As for my convictions between YEC or OEC, it is not the issue and I have repeatedly said it is not the issue. It is a matter of Biblical integrity.
It seems to me more and more that you are working on the assumption that the most contrary explanation to science is what you favor simply on the basis that it must be accepted purely on faith and somehow leads more to God's glory.

Is that an accurate assessment?
That is not the least bit accurate.