hmmm, I totally disagree with your first question. Ofcourse we are in a state of constant sin as we are all stained with sin. I cannot understand how you can say that Christians do not sin. This not only sounds gnostic, but anti-realist.
My verbage was apparently too strong. If you note, I went on to say that "When [a Christian] does sin, it is not he who sins, but sin within him that does."
As a Christian, I can, and do, sin. However, the the New Man does not sin. Indeed, he cannot. When I sin, it is not Christ within me who does it, but the Old Man. When I am resurrected, this body will be left and I will be given a new, incorruptible body that has no sin nature. Thus, I will finally and truly be freed. Again, see Romans 7.
I will get back to you on pistus as I learned from a teacher from Gordon College (PhD in hermeunetics) that this is in fact a verb and implies action. I am having lunch with him tomorrow-so if I am wrong, the so be it.
As I'm sure your prof will tell you, the verb
pisteuo means "I believe." That would be what is called the active voice. In the passive voice, the word is
pisteuomen, and it means "I am being believed." The only "action" involved here is simple grammar. It is absolutely no different from me saying, "I believe you." You could just as well say, "I am being believed by Jac." That's the difference in an active and passive voice. Against this, the word
pistos is a noun that means "belief", roughly. There's not anything deeper to the word. It does not mean "whole hearted commitment." It just means trust or belief.
On point 2, I do not understand what you are saying. I understand that we are separated from God, therefore we need to be saved. I do not see any distinction between being dead in our sins and in a constant state of sin. To me, this is 6 of one and a half dozen of another. If I am missing something, please let me know-but your point is completely unclear.
This is going to be a pointless discussion for us to have. You believe that it is sin that damns a person to hell. It's a common teaching, and a common misconception. It's just not true. Sin is the indirect cause, but the direct cause is our deadness. "Dead" simply means "separate from." The moment we sin, we die to God. The moment we are born again, we die to sin. The question is simple: are you "in Christ" or "in sin"? If you die in sin, you die in deadness to God. Thus, you are separated from God for all of eternity.
But, you don't believe that. You think a person goes to hell because their sins have not been forgiven. That's just not found in Scripture. Put simply, I believe that propitiation removes wrath, while forgiveness restores the broken relationship. Neither of these are salvic in the eschatological sense. Christ died for sin (propitiation) that God's wrath against it was satisfied. That doesn't save man, though. He is still separated from God, just no longer under wrath. Once we trust Christ, we are born again, becoming for the first time children of God. If we, as children, sin, our relationship with Him is broken, but that does not negate the status of "child." We repent and have that particular sin forgiven, and we find our relationship restored. But, that doesn't relate to final salvation. Final salvation is related to one thing and one thing only: faith alone in Christ alone.
Of course, you don't believe any of that. You're system tells you that sin condemns a man to hell, so you and I have nothing to agree on here. I'd just challenge you to show me a passage of Scripture that plainly says that.
Point 3 is pretty clear to me, you either follow Christ and attempt to live through the model he made for us, or you openly walk down your own road. If you openly advocate that Christ did not rise from the dead, you are not a follower of Christ (Spong and many liberal "Christians"). If you advocate homosexual marriage, then you are not a follower of Christ since he created the two flesh of man and woman becoming one. If you deny Christ's miracles, you are not a follower of Christ. I actually do not really understand your point here either. Read John 1 2:4 and we see that "One who says, "I know him," and doesn't keep his commandments, is a liar, and the truth isn't in him" WEB.
You are confusing discipleship with salvation. "To know" in the Greek, or the Hebrew, for that matter, doesn't mean "to be saved." It means to be in an intimate relationship with. If I, as a Christian, walk in sin, then I don't "know" God. I have a broken relationship with him. If you read the opening verses of 1 John, the purpose of the epistle is clearly laid out -- that the reader may have
fellowship with God.
Now, look how far you've gone. According to you, if I advocate homosexual marriage (which I don't), I can't be saved. How far does that go? How much of the Bible has to be believed? What if I believe in a literal six day creation? Can I be saved? What if I believe in a day-age creation? What about then? Or what if I advocate a woman's right to choose? Or suppose I reject Papal Authority? Suppose I reject the necessity of Mass? Suppose I believe that women can be pastors? Perhaps I believe that most of the Gospel are fabricated, except for the idea that Jesus resurrected. But He definitely didn't walk on the water. Am I saved?
There is only ONE issue that relates to final salvation, and that is faith alone in Christ alone. My works do not prove I have or do not have faith. Works are totally unrelated to salvation, as per Romans 4 and Ephesians 2. Now, works are very important, and the are absolutely essential to other doctrines, but they have absolutely NO bearing on salvation.
Point 5, ofcourse you have to be completely forgiven of sins. What is it that you believe. You must repent and then proclaim your faith in Christ. WE see this throughout the Bible. Perhaps the thief on the cross did repent and believed then was promised paradise. This is not recorded in the Bible, but you have to look other applicable passages. For instance, John the Baptiste would only baptise after people repented and he demanded that Jews needed to repent as well as Gentiles. Just because they were sons of Abraham did not exclude them from the necessity of repentence.
I think I've outlined my ideas above. Show me one verse in the Bible that says that you must repent of your sins to be justified or declared righteous.
As for John the Baptist, and Jesus for that matter, they preached the repentance of the Old Testament. It was the repentance for the Jews, the turning back to God, so that the Kingdom of God could be established. We are still waiting on that.
Secondly, I totally agree, as noted above, that repentance results in the forgiveness of sins, but, as you will again note, I reject the idea that forgiveness of sins is the necessary condition of receiving eternal life. Are you aware that the Gospel of John, which is the only book of the Bible written for the specific purpose of bringing a person to saving faith in Christ, NEVER ONCE uses the word "repent"?
Rev 20, Clearly everyone is judged and all face judgement. If you have faith, you will still be judged and you will receive your punishments and your rewards. If you have no faith, you will be thrown into the lake of fire. This is pretty straight forward stuff??? What am I missing???
The question was "What are people condemned for"? The text clearly says that those not in the Book are those condemned. Period. Now, this is the passage of the Bible that explains the final judgment. Condemnation is based on ONE thing and ONE thing only: not being born again. How are we born again? By believing in Jesus. Faith alone in Christ alone. These people are not condemned for their sins. They are condemned for not being in the Book.
John 1 2:2 is pretty straight forward too. Christ died for the whole world and we are to fulfill the great commision. He did not just die for the Jews, but the Gentiles too. That is why you have to read the next few verses and you see under 2:4, my point is validated about james. We can see those who are liars by the works that we do. God gave us the ability to deductively reason-so we are to use our skills to discern between true and false teachers.
Are you aware of what a "propitation" is? It is a sacrifice of appeasement. It is a sacrifice by which wrath is removed. This is not a potential sacrifice in this verse. Christ didn't die so that God's wrath could be removed from those who believe in Him. Christ died so that God's wrath WOULD be removed from the whole world. This is not a contingent or conditional statement. John makes that very clear. Just as Christ is the Christian's propitiation, He is also the non-Christian's propitiation. For the record, John wasn't writing to Jewish believers. His audience was a mixture, and probably mostly Gentile.
Now, if the wrath of God has been removed against Sin in general, then EVERY sin has been removed of both the believer and the non-believer. The world has been reconciled to God. In other words, God is no longer its enemy. All men are now savable if they only accept the promise of Jesus Christ in John 6:47.
God bless