In this post I want to address the remainder of K’s critiques under his heading
Problems Understanding the Human Author's Intended Meaning. All quotes and references comes from
this post,
this post, and
this post, as well as from an addendum found
here. K has provided a very helpful summary of these points
here. In fact, I encourage the reader to take five minutes and reread that summary before continuing.
I want to start with K’s question about creation positions: “Is There An Objective Interpretation?” Though he never explicitly answers it, the implicit answer throughout is simply “No.” He quotes Waltke with apparent approval saying,
- But modern hermeneutics has turned attention from the text to the interpreter and underscored that it is impossible for him to be neutral or presuppositionless; rather his prejudgment (Vorurteile) decisively influences his understanding of the text before him.
Now, I grant Waltke’s statement as true insofar as it reflects the conclusions of “modern hermeneutics.” I then take away with the other hand what I just granted with that one, for I think modern hermeneutics are simply wrong. I’ll offer a substantive reply just below, but let me just ask a simple question:
If, per Waltke, objective interpretation is impossible, then what about the interpretation of his claim that objective interpretation is impossible?
Put differently, if there is no objective interpretation, then what about K’s question itself as to whether or not there is an objective interpretation?
I hope my point is clear from the outset. If, as modern hermeneutics claims, there is no objectivity in interpretation, then the hermeneutical texts themselves that make those claims cannot themselves be interpreted objectively. Therefore, there is no way to objectively claim that any author, ancient or modern, objectively holds that there is no objective interpretation. I could even go talk to Waltke face to face, and he could tell me exactly what he means, and it still wouldn’t prove anything, because, on his argument, I would still need to subjectively (that is, non-objectively) interpret his words.
In still other words, no matter how sophisticated Waltke gets, he is basically saying, “The truth is that there is no truth.” It’s just highly sophisticated, self-defeating drivel. It’s non-sense and it ought to be treated as such. Well meaning, sophisticated non-sense is still non-sense, after all . . .
Having said that, I want to point where his argument actually fails, and in doing so, I want to point out where he is right and what we need to take away from it in order to ensure that we
are coming to an objectively true interpretation.
The first thing is to recognize that we all do come to a text with presuppositions. To take only one example, I presuppose the law of non-contradiction. If Moses says God exists, then he can’t mean that God doesn’t exist. That’s a presupposition. But it doesn’t follow from our having presuppositions that those necessarily mean that we cannot see what the author meant. In fact, I hope you see the opposite. Far from being obscuring factors, our presuppositions can actually be clarifying features of our hermeneutic! It seems, then, Waltke actually has an incorrect presupposition insofar as he seems to think that presuppositions by nature necessarily detract from objective interpretation. But that is just a presupposition I reject.
And yet, it is true that we all hold to presuppositions that obscure the author’s original meaning. So what do we do in that case? And here, I think that K has given us the best possible answer, and I’ll quote him directly:
- we truly self-examine ourselves – the beliefs we hold, systems of theology we are drawn to, thinkers that we look up to and appreciate, the beliefs of family and friends whom we respect and look up to, our education and what we are taught, our experiences in life and the fuller picture of all our influences
This is work that I take very seriously and very personally as it goes to the particular training I’ve had not in school but in my clinical work. As a chaplain, I spend my days interpreting “human documents.” I see someone who is refusing to let their dying mother go, who is offering theological defenses. Through interpretation, I detect anger. I ask about it, and soon it is revealed that the theological positions were all smokescreens. The real issue is that the woman is using her mother as a proxy-war against death itself, as she had recently lost several other family members in a tragic way. She herself did not see that until she was willing to “truly self-examine . . . [her] experiences in life and the fuller picture of all [those] influences.” It is hard work that requires humility and, frankly, courage, because it requires a willingness to be wrong.
Anyway, in light of this, K, you say you are afraid that I missing the simple fact that “we are all guilty of eisegesis to some degree.” But I want to know if that is really true. I grant that we are
often guilty of eisegesis, and that we are often guilty of it unawares. But is it true that we are always guilty of it? Is it true, per Waltke, that we are “
never neutral when we come to the text” ? As I said above, if so, then we aren’t neutral when we read Waltke saying we aren’t neutral. We are eisegeting to some degree when we read that we are always eisegeting. And
that strikes me as the absurd position.
“Well,” you might respond, “It remains true that we are always eisegeting and that we are never neutral; but it is clear that in some cases, that eisegesis and bias isn’t enough to prevent an objective interpretation.” Fine. Then the fact is you are allowing for objective interpretation in principle, and on that principle, I claim that it is possible—even in the case of Genesis 1!
That brings us to your questions of divine dictation. And here, I want to acknowledge that dictation
per se isn’t the problem. I don’t know that anyone denies that God dictated some portions of Scripture—you cited the Ten Commandments as an example, which is as good as any I could come up with.
I still object to divine dictation as a meaningful understanding of inspiration, as I distinguish between dictated passages that the author understands (such that the author becomes the efficient cause of the text, including the meaning of the text) and dictated passages that the author doesn’t understand (such that the author becomes a mere material cause of the text).
Consider two examples. Suppose your wife is a member of some other board and she reads some particularly interesting post and calls you and reads it. She asks your opinion, and you ask her to share your opinion. You give her a brief word-for-word response that she types out. She completely gets what you are saying, and after quoting you, even offers a few of her own thoughts amplifying your own.
Now suppose that I am reading the boards and come across some comment Hana makes in which she makes a mathematical reference. I am completely lost (hardly a unique experience!). My wife, who is a numbers girl, walks in and reads over her comments over my shoulder and finds them terribly interesting. She says, “Hey blah blah blah blah” (well, that’s what I hear, because I don’t get numbers). She wants me to share her thoughts as she doesn’t have an account here, so I do so. I write her gibberish out word for word, and she and Hana have a neat exchange that the rest of us find about as interesting as when I start talking Greek.
Both are examples of dictation. In the first, your wife is the efficient cause of meaning. Yes, you dictated what to say, but she fully understood the referents, such that your message was in a very real sense her own, and that whether she acknowledges you as the source of the quote or not. Hand that’s the key:
your point became hers; that is, you shared a common intention. In the parlance of our discussion, there is a single meaning. But in the second example, that isn’t the case. My wife’s intention is not mine. Her point is not mine. I’m just a material cause with, frankly, no point at all—and any point that I do have may as well be ignored anyway because it’s not my meaning that matters! Here we have two intentions: my (non-existent) one and my wife’s.
It is the second type of divine dictation that I and classical proponents of the HGM like Radmacher object to when considering divine dictation. We allow that God may have dictated a passage. We allow that God may have had a long face-to-face conversation with some author and then that author shares God’s words with the people. What we object to is the idea that in sharing those words, that they are sharing words of which they are ignorant or even wrong about the meaning. For
that claim reduces the human author to a mere material cause, and that, in turn, means that the human author’s point is meaningless.
To close this section, you raise an interesting Christological aspect of hermeneutics. I’ll quote you at length here:
- Far from being a robot, I think an author having close communication with God would actually have become alive and free. Far from removing the author's meaning, we find our true meaning and fulfilment in God. It stands to reason that an author who is in direct contact with God would gain an enriched intention and meaning rather than having it nullified.
Our true self and purpose reach their pinnacle in Christ. It is in Christ our creator that we attain true freedom. Why can't we then apply this theological principle to an author who is in God's immediate presence? That is, the author's true self is actually accentuated.
Furthermore, I'd argue that closer communication methods of Divine inspiration provides the most complete Christological picture of Scripture (if that is what one desires). God personally communicating with Moses allows God to accurately convey what he means, and Moses in awe and wanting to serve God now wishes to convey God's words or insights to the world accurately. The divine and human message in one unified front. A true hypostatic union of God's Word, both fully divine and fully human in one. Quite Christologically beautiful. Don't you think?
I would submit that you are broadly correct, so long as we are talking about “dictation” that the author understands. The kind that makes us “robots” (or, in my language, mere material causes) is the kind in which the author is passing on words that he doesn’t understand. And I think that you at least implicitly grant that in your words above. After all, what else would it mean that “an author who is in direct contact with God would gain an enriched intention and meaning rather than having it nullified”? His intention can only be enriched if it is his own!
So, how would we gain access to
the author’s “enriched intention”? The only possible answer is the HGM. What we cannot due is appeal to passages or revelation of which the author is completely and in principle necessarily ignorant of and say that those passages revealed that “enriched intention.” For such an intention would not be the human author’s intention at all, and therefore, that wouldn’t be “his enriched” intention. It would be God’s rich intention of which the human author was totally unaware; thus, as I have often said, the words in question would not, in fact, be revelatory until future revelation came along and revealed this hidden meaning, and then all of the problems associated with such a view. Better to just hold that the only meaning that counts is the one the human author had in mind, because
that is the inspired meaning!
So all this leads, quite naturally, to your question about what God saw that the human author didn’t. Here you quote the CSBH Article XVIII, which I’ll also quote in part:
- The single meaning of a prophet's words includes, but is not restricted to, the understanding of those words by the prophet and necessarily involves the intention of God evidenced in the fulfillment of those words. WE DENY that the writers of Scripture always understood the full implications of their own words.
To be clear, I deny the first sentence but affirm the second.
I think you picked up on this intention when you wrote in your addendum,
- You are therefore more content with attaching "literal" meaning at a higher level of the text in Psalm 22, than you would with Genesis 1 where meaning goes right down to the very terms themselves. The details of Psalm 22 you are much less concerned about. BUT, why not? I'm just taking a guess, but perhaps it is just more difficult to really understand what David means by his words and/or what knowledge he has of the Messiah.
The context of the question is a little different, but I think the point is basically the same. Per the article just quoted, I affirm that the single meaning of Psalm 22 includes what David understood—the point being that “though the righteous may suffer for trusting Yahweh, He will always vindicate that trust in the end.” I deny that the
meaning is any more than that. To restate, I insist the meaning is in fact restricted to that principle. That does not mean, however, that David knew all the implications of what he meant.
There is a critical distinction to be made here between interpretation and application. Psalm 22 is
applied to different people differently. David could never have known all of those applications (although God certainly did). In particular, he didn’t know
how it would apply to the Messiah, only that it would (for it applies to all people: that was his point!). So let me say this clearly:
there is one meaning or interpretation; there are many implications or applications.
And that is why I am less concerned about the details of Psalm 22. The details were necessary to reveal the one interpretation, the single meaning. They are not necessary in the application. That is the entire point of principalism! I hold that it is a happy coincidence of
application that Jesus’ hands and feet were
literally pierced, that his garments were
literally divided, etc. That doesn’t constitute a secondary meaning. But it does justify the apologetic and theological value of the NT’s use of the passage in the way it does. We can marvel at how the passage applies in this particular case—to Jesus Himself. But what makes that so marvelous is not just the literal application of what in their original context were poetic words, but rather how Jesus truly fulfills the
meaning of the text. That is no happy coincidence! That’s what the text actually means and meant.
I hope the application of all of this to Genesis 1 is self-evident. The meaning of Genesis 1 has to Moses’ own. That doesn’t mean that the application of the text had to be fully understood. Moses didn’t know about the Big Bang, so he didn’t know that this passage would have great apologetic value (an application). He probably didn’t know that God’s resting on the seventh day could be applied to our rest in Christ. But that wasn’t his
meaning. His meaning, as far as I can tell, is that God created the universe is six days and rested on the seventh. The theological principle he was driving at was that God is sovereign over all, that He is a God of order who expects us to work as He did to bring order out of chaos and to ourselves be people of order, and that He alone is worthy of worship. What I don’t see is how Moses could have meant that God created the world in seven ages or that some later revelation can show that Moses’ words really meant that even though he didn’t.
Looking forward to addressing your own model next! Definitely the highlight of the thread, as far as I can tell!