Re: What is His name?
Posted: Fri Jun 01, 2018 5:13 pm
Hello BW,BavarianWheels wrote: ↑Fri Jun 01, 2018 12:59 pmRejecting Christ's gift of salvation does not afford them another salvation. The only salvation is that through Christ. I think we agree. Though again, we must clarify which laws are those that the OT believer/pre-crucifixion believer was UNDER and as it has to do with the covenant...of blood...those are the ceremonial laws. The Decalogue does not point to Christ. The Decalogue points to sin. e.g. Romans 3:20 Romans 7:7 So the law that is obsolete is those ceremonial laws that pointed to Christ...that is the law nailed to the cross.RockyMidnight wrote: ↑Fri Jun 01, 2018 10:44 am What then of those Jews who rejected Christ's Gift of Salvation? Did that automatically condemn them to Hell? Of course not, but they did remain under the OT law.
We agree.RockyMidnight wrote: ↑Fri Jun 01, 2018 10:44 am Those Jews who accepted Christ did not. They became in Christ and Christ in them. It no longer required any distinction between Jew and Gentile, etc. per your NT scriptures above.
We, "Gentiles" are no longer under the old covenant, True. That covenant was spoken of specifically by Christ. e.g. Luke 22:20 It's the covenant of blood. The new covenant is that of Christ's blood.RockyMidnight wrote: ↑Fri Jun 01, 2018 10:44 am Did the NT then simply ignore OT Jewish believers and instead devote preaching the Gospel only to Gentiles? Again, of course not. The effort to bring those under the law continued in the NT. Now, would the disciples preach to those under the law the same as to Gentiles? Of course not because Gentiles have nothing to do with the law and the OT.
I don't know that I ever said you were misquoting scripture...did I? I think I said it was others here, but I apologize if that seemed to include you.RockyMidnight wrote: ↑Fri Jun 01, 2018 10:44 am So again, my original point was that in reading NT scripture, it should be taken into consideration who is being addressed, Jew or Gentile, because the message leads to the same end, but is different according to the audience; Jew or Gentile.
This clears up what otherwise appears to be scriptural contradictions. It in no way detracts one dot from Christ's message.
If this still remains unclear to you, or if you want to insist I am misquoting scripture, then so be it, but I will not continue this further. It is either spiritually evident or it is not, and that's OK, since what's REALLY important here is that we are all brothers and sisters in Christ. On that there can be no dispute.
We are all brothers and sisters in Christ...but again there is at least one other person that has said certain things were given ONLY to the Jews. My contention is not that it wasn't given to Jews, it's that "ONLY" part that concerns me since salvation has always been for ALL except that God entrusted a certain family, if you will, to carry the torch.
Do you or anyone else reading along think that if a Gentile or non-Jew in the days of Abraham believed the 'Jewish religion' and followed the dictates of the ceremonial laws that they would not be counted as part of Abraham's seed...heir to the promise through the spilling of animal blood as a sign of faith?
Even the blood of the Paschal lamb that was painted on the door posts at the Exodus protected all whom were inside the home(s), not just the Jews. e.g. Exodus 12:48,49 which alludes to that fact...if foreigners could celebrate later, one could make the argument that the original Passover included non-Jews also passed over.
I've asked questions on your position but I don't see that you've misquoted anything. It seemed to me that we were in more agreement than disagreement.
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You wrote,"Do you or anyone else reading along think that if a Gentile or non-Jew in the days of Abraham believed the 'Jewish religion' and followed the dictates of the ceremonial laws that they would not be counted as part of Abraham's seed...heir to the promise through the spilling of animal blood as a sign of faith?"
12 Now the Lord had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father's house, unto a land that I will shew thee:
2 And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing:
3 And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed. [Genesis 12:1-3}
3 ":And I will bless them that bless thee"
Obviously God's blessing was not reserved only for the Jews as this scripture clearly states.
What I am unsure of here however is whether or not those who blessed the Jews and were therefore part of God's Promise
were also under the law. That is mute since it does not impinge on our salvation, Jew or Gentile.
No, I did not believe you thought I misquoted scripture, but in our passing each other above, I considered it, hence my remark.
We actually are in total agreement (like minded), as it should be and for that I am grateful.
Thank for the clarity BW. God Bless
Cheers and