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Why don't we stone rebellious children to death?

Posted: Thu Mar 23, 2006 9:20 am
by Blacknad
Hi all,

I hope you'll forgive me for the provocative title.

What Old Testament law should we practise today and what should we not.

For example why is Deut 21:18-21 not applicable?

From http://www.wcg.org/lit/law/otl/otl10.htm :

Did Jesus teach people to obey everything God had commanded? Matt. 5:20, 48; 7:21. Did he encourage people to obey the ritual laws? Matt. 5:23-24; 8:4. Did he come to destroy the law? Matt. 5:17.

Comment: The purpose of Jesus' life and work was to fulfill both the Law (the books of Moses) and the Prophets (other Old Testament books). He did not destroy the Old Testament. But that doesn't mean that Christians have to keep circumcision and all the other old laws. Jesus' ministry caused many changes in the law -- changes so dramatic that laws were "set aside" or declared "obsolete" (Heb. 7:18; 8:13). Some laws remained the same, some were changed, and others were "abolished" (Eph. 2:15).

When Jesus said, "I have not come to abolish the Law or the Prophets," he did not mean that each specific law would stay exactly the same. He meant that the purpose and message of the Law and the Prophets remain exactly the same. The Law and the Prophets pointed to him and were intended from the beginning to be fulfilled by him.

Some of the specific laws of the old covenant are still valid, but many of them were set aside when Jesus came and fulfilled them by his life, death and resurrection. Matthew 5:17 is not a "proof" of any particular law, because this verse does not tell us which specific laws are still valid or which have been changed or set aside.

Old covenant laws (such as the laws of sacrifice) have been set aside precisely because Jesus has fulfilled them. He did not come for the purpose of destroying those laws, but for fulfilling their meaning. However, by fulfilling their meaning, he made it unnecessary for Christians to keep those laws. They are unnecessary because they have served their purpose by pointing to Jesus. He is the reality to which they could only point. Now that he has come, they are no longer legally binding.

Yet because they point to Jesus Christ and show how God interacted with a group of people at one time and place, the old covenant laws continue to give us insights into God's will. Even the laws of sacrifice are "useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness" (2 Tim. 3:16).

Jesus also fulfilled various laws about ritual cleanliness. That did not mean that he never became unclean, because anyone with normal bodily functions would occasionally become unclean (Deut. 23:10). Jesus also touched dead people, lepers and other causes of uncleanness. It was not a sin to be unclean. However, Jesus fulfilled the purpose of the purity laws: He was morally and spiritually pure. He had internal holiness, set apart to do the work of God.

Jesus fulfilled the purpose of God's laws. He did not destroy the fact that people should obey God, even though his crucifixion brought a change in some of the details of how they obey God.




I would be interested to hear a discussion on this or maybe point me to a thread if there has been one.

Thankyou,

Blacknad.

Posted: Thu Mar 23, 2006 10:02 am
by Jac3510
The Mosaic Law was a conditional covenant with national Israel that related to certain promises as to her physical land, prosperity, etc. It was never intended to save.

Christians are not under the law for the simple reason that we are not a part of national Israel. The Mosaic Law served its purpose; it has been set aside. Did Christ "destroy" the Law? No, but He perfectly kept it, and thus He offered a New Covenant. It has not yet been formally ratified, but the Church enjoys its blessings as a branch grafted in until the times of the Gentile are fulfilled.

So, while the OT is very beneficial--it is Scripture, inspired, and thus inerrant--we can learn much from it, there is no reason to assume that those OT laws apply to us in exactly the same manner as they applied to a 6th century Jew.

Posted: Thu Mar 23, 2006 3:36 pm
by IRQ Conflict
Further to this Paul taught that those that observed the law and were guilty of breaking the law you were guilty of law on the whole. So we should all be stoned.

Jesus not only kept the law but demonstrated to us for the first time forgiveness of sin. The "New Covenant"

Joh 8:4 They say unto him, Master, this woman was taken in adultery, in the very act.
Joh 8:5 Now Moses in the law commanded us, that such should be stoned: but what sayest thou?
Joh 8:6 This they said, tempting him, that they might have to accuse him. But Jesus stooped down, and with his finger wrote on the ground, as though he heard them not.
Joh 8:7 So when they continued asking him, he lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her.
Joh 8:8 And again he stooped down, and wrote on the ground.
Joh 8:9 And they which heard it, being convicted by their own conscience, went out one by one, beginning at the eldest, even unto the last: and Jesus was left alone, and the woman standing in the midst.
Joh 8:10 When Jesus had lifted up himself, and saw none but the woman, he said unto her, Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee?
Joh 8:11 She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more.

But paul also warned we should not use this new liberty as an excuse to sin. We still punish evil doers not that what she did was justified but she was to be justified through Christs sacrifice, doing away with the old and bringing in the new.