Evidence for God from Science

"And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."

There has been some debate as wether or not this passage really refers to God being manifest in the flesh... So what do all of you think of 1 Timothy 3:16? The reason I'm bringing this up here is because one of our members here deny what this passage is saying. In fact, if I remember correctly, this person has claimed that the word for God here isnt used in the earliest manuscripts, but was added in at a later time (probably in the 2nd century).


So is this passage reliable?

The trinity are one... Jesus, the Father and the Holy Spirit.

So ya, God Himself was manifest in the flesh.

Actually, it's a Majority (received) Text vs. Alexandrian Text question.

Majority Text:
θεος εφανερωθη εν σαρκι

Alexandrian Text:
ος εφανερωθη εν σαρκι

Notice the majority says "theos ephanerothe en sarki" ("God was manifested in the flesh." The Alexandrian, though, doesn't use "theos" (God), it uses "hos" (He), thus, "hos ephanerothe en sarki" ("He was manifested in the flesh.")

Most modern translations--NASB, NIV, ESV, etc,--go with the Alexandrian texts, whereas the KJV and NKJV go by the Majority Text. It's a serious debate right now which better represents the original. You can find arguments on both sides.

God bless

Church Fathers from the first three Centuries used "theos". That pretty much settles it. (Besides, a man being made manifest in the flesh is hardly a mystery).

See http://www.lamblion.net/EBooks/false_citations.pdf

I have also heard that ος with a line over the top of the word was an equivalent for θεος. And that some scribes may have inadvertently left the Line off or even over a period of time the line may have faded.

Does this sound familiar to any of you Greek scholars out there?