And shall call his name Immanuel

[Christian2]

Notice the words in bold.

From the Hebrew Scriptures:

14 Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

From the Greek OT Scriptures:

14 Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel.

I have a good article that explains why the Greek Scriptures use "virgin" instead of "young woman."

Here: http://www.lightofmashiach.org/almah.html

My questions are (1) who was this woman in the OT and did she call her child Immanuel? Is so, where. I did a word search and can't find it.

And,

(2) Since Isaiah 7:14 is used as a prophecy in the NT for Jesus, why didn't Mary call Jesus "Immanuel."

Matthew 1:23
“Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,” which is translated, “God with us.”

I sincerely hope this isn't a stupid question. lol

[bizzt]

Notice the words in bold.

From the Hebrew Scriptures:

14 Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

From the Greek OT Scriptures:

14 Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel.

I have a good article that explains why the Greek Scriptures use "virgin" instead of "young woman."

Here: http://www.lightofmashiach.org/almah.html

My questions are (1) who was this woman in the OT and did she call her child Immanuel? Is so, where. I did a word search and can't find it.

And,

(2) Since Isaiah 7:14 is used as a prophecy in the NT for Jesus, why didn't Mary call Jesus "Immanuel."

Matthew 1:23
“Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,” which is translated, “God with us.”

I sincerely hope this isn't a stupid question. lol

This is the Evidence I have Contrary but take it with a Grain of Salt... It was Googled
http://www.factology.com/archive/20041009.htm

The last part I can give you from Google as well
http://www.gotquestions.org/Immanuel-Jesus.html

[Christian2]

Notice the words in bold.

From the Hebrew Scriptures:

14 Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

From the Greek OT Scriptures:

14 Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel.

I have a good article that explains why the Greek Scriptures use "virgin" instead of "young woman."

Here: http://www.lightofmashiach.org/almah.html

My questions are (1) who was this woman in the OT and did she call her child Immanuel? Is so, where. I did a word search and can't find it.

And,

(2) Since Isaiah 7:14 is used as a prophecy in the NT for Jesus, why didn't Mary call Jesus "Immanuel."

Matthew 1:23
“Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,” which is translated, “God with us.”

I sincerely hope this isn't a stupid question. lol

This is the Evidence I have Contrary but take it with a Grain of Salt... It was Googled
http://www.factology.com/archive/20041009.htm

The last part I can give you from Google as well
http://www.gotquestions.org/Immanuel-Jesus.html

Thanks. I wonder who these people are at this site: http://www.factology.com/archive/20041009.htm

Notice what they said:

The Messiah Jesus was also born of a virgin birth and he was betrayed to be crucified, although he was not.

This site: http://www.gotquestions.org/Immanuel-Jesus.html

is better.

Thanks, I got a lot of additional information from the sites.