The Fall and Free Will
Posted: Tue Oct 10, 2006 12:32 pm
A doctrine held by every orthodox Christian, from Catholic to Calvinist, is that Adam had complete, 'libertarian' free will before the Fall. His will was not bound; he was created perfect and with the completely free choice to follow or reject God. Since he knew God personally, he followed God and would have had a strong inclination to keep following God.
But he fell. We can assume any of us would have fallen in his place: God would not have made a weak creature, prone to falling. He was morally the most integer man who ever lived, because he had never committed one single sin. Until the Fall.
Does that mean that whenever you give a man free will, a choice and enough temptation, he will fall?
Does it mean the creature 'man' naturally has an inherent weakness (not a flaw, but a weakness)?
(I.e. would it have been logically impossible to create a man who would not have fallen?)
Does it mean man could have chosen good in theory, but not in practice?
This is a very difficult question for me. Neither Adam's mind nor his fellowship with God were clouded. And yet, when he was tempted, he fell. When we would have been tempted in his place under the same circumstances, we would presumably have fallen. Does that mean that the gift of Free Will (combined with an insidious attack of evil) has necessarily led to the Fall?
But he fell. We can assume any of us would have fallen in his place: God would not have made a weak creature, prone to falling. He was morally the most integer man who ever lived, because he had never committed one single sin. Until the Fall.
Does that mean that whenever you give a man free will, a choice and enough temptation, he will fall?
Does it mean the creature 'man' naturally has an inherent weakness (not a flaw, but a weakness)?
(I.e. would it have been logically impossible to create a man who would not have fallen?)
Does it mean man could have chosen good in theory, but not in practice?
This is a very difficult question for me. Neither Adam's mind nor his fellowship with God were clouded. And yet, when he was tempted, he fell. When we would have been tempted in his place under the same circumstances, we would presumably have fallen. Does that mean that the gift of Free Will (combined with an insidious attack of evil) has necessarily led to the Fall?