Bible clarification please.
Posted: Thu Oct 12, 2006 3:39 am
I was observing a post a while back regarding someone saying all these verses they had read which they thought were horrible. On the night I read this post (I think it was called Iused2bchristian or something) I thought that I would try and read what he was referring to and other things as well to try and gain a better perspective of what they were meaning.
However as I did I found myself feeling quite puzzled. If one reads the Bible right through from Genesis ch 12 to Numbers ch 32 they notice that the chosen people are nomads. They are not a settled race with their own land. The times they were attacked was it because they were seen as invaders coming into another persons land? We are only getting on side of the story in the Bible when we read it as if the opposing forces were in the wrong and the Hebrews were in the right. Are there some clues as to what these people opposed them for?
I tend to look for intellectual reasons as to why things occur. While reading this I realised that a country would protect themselves from invading forces, or what they thought was a perceived threat. Could someone please point me in the right direction to find out exactly what it was they opposed them for.
Also I have a question I think may only answered by someone who is fluent in Hebrew. I suddenly had aha ha idea! , I realised that anything that existed before the flood from that region would have been lost. The story of creation was an oral tradition handed down until it was written. This led me to realise that the story of Genesis creation is really two versions of the same story from different people. As well, Hebrew would not have even existed until many generations after the flood. My question is: how reliable is the translation of the original language into ancient Hebrew, then into the more modern Hebrew studied today? I realise that many words often have multiple meanings in many languages. In ancient Sumerian for example the word for heart and womb are identical. So I wonder are there many words that may exist in our modern Bibles that are completely different from the original meaning intended?
As well wouldn't Hebrew itself be a language similar to English in the context that it is taken from a plethora of other languages? Where in the Bible can I find the point at which the Hebrew language would have begun in the first place?
However as I did I found myself feeling quite puzzled. If one reads the Bible right through from Genesis ch 12 to Numbers ch 32 they notice that the chosen people are nomads. They are not a settled race with their own land. The times they were attacked was it because they were seen as invaders coming into another persons land? We are only getting on side of the story in the Bible when we read it as if the opposing forces were in the wrong and the Hebrews were in the right. Are there some clues as to what these people opposed them for?
I tend to look for intellectual reasons as to why things occur. While reading this I realised that a country would protect themselves from invading forces, or what they thought was a perceived threat. Could someone please point me in the right direction to find out exactly what it was they opposed them for.
Also I have a question I think may only answered by someone who is fluent in Hebrew. I suddenly had aha ha idea! , I realised that anything that existed before the flood from that region would have been lost. The story of creation was an oral tradition handed down until it was written. This led me to realise that the story of Genesis creation is really two versions of the same story from different people. As well, Hebrew would not have even existed until many generations after the flood. My question is: how reliable is the translation of the original language into ancient Hebrew, then into the more modern Hebrew studied today? I realise that many words often have multiple meanings in many languages. In ancient Sumerian for example the word for heart and womb are identical. So I wonder are there many words that may exist in our modern Bibles that are completely different from the original meaning intended?
As well wouldn't Hebrew itself be a language similar to English in the context that it is taken from a plethora of other languages? Where in the Bible can I find the point at which the Hebrew language would have begun in the first place?