Why would Matthew copy from Mark?
Posted: Fri May 09, 2008 7:01 am
Most, but not all, Christian scholars believe the Gospel of Mark was written first and Matthew and Luke copied from Mark.
Since Mark was not a disciple and Matthew was, wouldn't it make more sense for Mark to copy from Matthew? The only way it might make sense is that the canonical Gospel of Matthew was not written by the disciple Matthew.
I have a question about Papias' statement which follows:
... but with regard to Matthew he (Papias) has made the following statements]: Matthew put together the oracles [of the Lord] in the Hebrew language, and each one interpreted them as best he could....Fragments of Papias, Fragment VI, (Quoted by Eusebius)
Isn't it believed that the "oracles" were sayings and not an actual gospel?
Would the "Hebrew language" in the first century be today's Hebrew or would it be more like Aramaic?
I understand that some scholars believe Papias meant Aramaic and not Hebrew.
Thank you.
Since Mark was not a disciple and Matthew was, wouldn't it make more sense for Mark to copy from Matthew? The only way it might make sense is that the canonical Gospel of Matthew was not written by the disciple Matthew.
I have a question about Papias' statement which follows:
... but with regard to Matthew he (Papias) has made the following statements]: Matthew put together the oracles [of the Lord] in the Hebrew language, and each one interpreted them as best he could....Fragments of Papias, Fragment VI, (Quoted by Eusebius)
Isn't it believed that the "oracles" were sayings and not an actual gospel?
Would the "Hebrew language" in the first century be today's Hebrew or would it be more like Aramaic?
I understand that some scholars believe Papias meant Aramaic and not Hebrew.
Thank you.