According to the Scriptures, would the Messiah rise?
Posted: Sun Jan 31, 2010 4:55 pm
In "Gabriel's Vision Stone Tablet: Prophecy of the Coming Messiah Jesus?," (http://www.godandscience.org/apologetic ... stone.html) Rich Deem writes that the Gabriel Stone mentions a command by the Archangel Gabriel that the Messiah should resurrect in 3 days.
He is right that the Dead Sea Scrolls confirm the Suffering Servant passage of Isaiah 53. What do you think of the translation of Isaiah 53 from the Dead Sea Scrolls at: http://www.allaboutarchaeology.org/dead ... olls-2.htm , and is there a better translation?
It doesn't say the servant was "pierced through." It says he was "like a lamb that is led to slaughter" and that he "bore the sin of many." It doesn't explicitly say that he was like a lamb led to slaughter "because" he bore their sins. But it doesn't make much sense to separate the two ideas in this passage, does it?
If the Gabriel Stone "appears to EXTEND the ancient prophecies of the "suffering servant" to include his death and resurrection," does that mean the prophecies, unless extended, do not include his resurrection?
Does the Gabriel Stone help us to understand whether scripture propheciesthe Messuah's resurrection?
It said that line 80 gives a command for someone to "live" or "resurrect." If the word "live" fits better, how do we know that this means live after the person's death? And how do we know that the term prince of princes in the next line is connected?
In Prophecies of Jesus Christ as Messiah, (http://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/prophchr.html), David Reem wrote that Psalms 16:10, 30:3, 49:15, and 118:17 prophesied that the Messiah would be resurrected. Why do you think that the Psalms of David are not David's poetic protrayal of himself?
When King David refers to God's Holy One in Psalm 16:10, does he mean the Messiah or does he mean each one who is holy? For example, John 14 says: "He who has seen me has seen the Father." "He" refers to each person who has seen Jesus. And Psalm 89 says: "Let the heavens praise thy wonders, O LORD, thy faithfulness in the assembly of the holy ones!"
When King David says in Psalm 118:17, "I shall not die, but live, And tell of the works of the LORD," does he mean that he won't die at that time, but will live, or does he mean he will never die? Could you say "he is very sick, but he's not going to die?" How can Psalm 118:17-18 be about a dying and resurrected Messiah if it ends: "The LORD has chastened me severely, but he has not given me over to death."
In "How the Passover Reveals Jesus Christ", (http://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/passover.html), he described how Jesus was buried or planted on the feast of first fruits, in which Jews sacrificed their grain. He wrote: "As such, Jesus represents the fulfillment of God's promise to provide the rest of the harvest - resurrection of those who follow the Messiah." Did the Old Testament compare resurrection with a harvest? Is there a mismatch in the analogy because the first fruits were sacrificed and destroyed in the temple, instead of being planted, "resurrected," and harvested?
It gave an interesting analogy between the middle matzoh that is broken, hidden, and then uncovered, and the Messiah's resurrection. Do the scriptures tell us to do this procedure, and do they explain why?
In "A MESSIANIC PASSOVER HAGGADAH, (http://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/haggadah.html), David Sargent gave an interesting analogy between the middle matzoh that is broken, hidden, and then uncovered, and the Messiah's resurrection. Do the scriptures tell us to do this procedure, and do they explain why?
If it is an analogy for the Messiah, what does the bigger piece of the Middle Matzoh represent, and what does the smaller piece that is not hidden, found, or uncovered represent?
He wrote: "Some rabbis say it represents the HIGH PRIEST, LEVITES and PEOPLE of ISRAEL. The three forms of worship in temple times. But why is the middle broken?" Could it be because Israel was broken by Egypt, then hidden as slaves, and then reappeared after they found the reward of the promised land? After all, the Matzoh is broken right after you say "Now we are here; next year may we be in the Land of Israel. Now we are slaves; next year may we be free men." It's true that not each person was a slave in Egypt, but doesn't the Bible say Israel as a nation was in bondage? Even those who were free probably had Egyptian employers and served them in that sense.
He wrote about the lamb and Afikoman Maztoh sandwich: "Also the lamb was not eaten outside of Jerusalem, so the afikoman took on much of the significance of the Passover lamb for them." I see how without the lamb in the sandwich, the Afikoman becomes more important. But why should it take on the lamb's meaning? Where does it say that the Jews interpreted it that way?
I couldn't find any Jewish websites that say during their seder ritual: "The AFIKOMAN is our substitute for the Passover Lamb, which in days of old, was the final food of the Seder feast."
He writes: "The Rabbis have rigid codes as to the appearance of the matzah. It must have stripes, be pierced and without leaven. Y'shua was afflicted, striped, pierced and without sin." It makes sense to me that if the last day's bread in Egypt was unleavened, then the Passover bread would be too. Many pictures of Matzoh on the internet have dark brown spots and holes in a checker-board grid pattern. Could you point me to rabbis' rules about stripes and holes?
Do Jews mention the Messiah when they eat Matzoh at Passover?
Sincerely,
Hal Smith
He is right that the Dead Sea Scrolls confirm the Suffering Servant passage of Isaiah 53. What do you think of the translation of Isaiah 53 from the Dead Sea Scrolls at: http://www.allaboutarchaeology.org/dead ... olls-2.htm , and is there a better translation?
It doesn't say the servant was "pierced through." It says he was "like a lamb that is led to slaughter" and that he "bore the sin of many." It doesn't explicitly say that he was like a lamb led to slaughter "because" he bore their sins. But it doesn't make much sense to separate the two ideas in this passage, does it?
If the Gabriel Stone "appears to EXTEND the ancient prophecies of the "suffering servant" to include his death and resurrection," does that mean the prophecies, unless extended, do not include his resurrection?
Does the Gabriel Stone help us to understand whether scripture propheciesthe Messuah's resurrection?
It said that line 80 gives a command for someone to "live" or "resurrect." If the word "live" fits better, how do we know that this means live after the person's death? And how do we know that the term prince of princes in the next line is connected?
In Prophecies of Jesus Christ as Messiah, (http://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/prophchr.html), David Reem wrote that Psalms 16:10, 30:3, 49:15, and 118:17 prophesied that the Messiah would be resurrected. Why do you think that the Psalms of David are not David's poetic protrayal of himself?
When King David refers to God's Holy One in Psalm 16:10, does he mean the Messiah or does he mean each one who is holy? For example, John 14 says: "He who has seen me has seen the Father." "He" refers to each person who has seen Jesus. And Psalm 89 says: "Let the heavens praise thy wonders, O LORD, thy faithfulness in the assembly of the holy ones!"
When King David says in Psalm 118:17, "I shall not die, but live, And tell of the works of the LORD," does he mean that he won't die at that time, but will live, or does he mean he will never die? Could you say "he is very sick, but he's not going to die?" How can Psalm 118:17-18 be about a dying and resurrected Messiah if it ends: "The LORD has chastened me severely, but he has not given me over to death."
In "How the Passover Reveals Jesus Christ", (http://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/passover.html), he described how Jesus was buried or planted on the feast of first fruits, in which Jews sacrificed their grain. He wrote: "As such, Jesus represents the fulfillment of God's promise to provide the rest of the harvest - resurrection of those who follow the Messiah." Did the Old Testament compare resurrection with a harvest? Is there a mismatch in the analogy because the first fruits were sacrificed and destroyed in the temple, instead of being planted, "resurrected," and harvested?
It gave an interesting analogy between the middle matzoh that is broken, hidden, and then uncovered, and the Messiah's resurrection. Do the scriptures tell us to do this procedure, and do they explain why?
In "A MESSIANIC PASSOVER HAGGADAH, (http://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/haggadah.html), David Sargent gave an interesting analogy between the middle matzoh that is broken, hidden, and then uncovered, and the Messiah's resurrection. Do the scriptures tell us to do this procedure, and do they explain why?
If it is an analogy for the Messiah, what does the bigger piece of the Middle Matzoh represent, and what does the smaller piece that is not hidden, found, or uncovered represent?
He wrote: "Some rabbis say it represents the HIGH PRIEST, LEVITES and PEOPLE of ISRAEL. The three forms of worship in temple times. But why is the middle broken?" Could it be because Israel was broken by Egypt, then hidden as slaves, and then reappeared after they found the reward of the promised land? After all, the Matzoh is broken right after you say "Now we are here; next year may we be in the Land of Israel. Now we are slaves; next year may we be free men." It's true that not each person was a slave in Egypt, but doesn't the Bible say Israel as a nation was in bondage? Even those who were free probably had Egyptian employers and served them in that sense.
He wrote about the lamb and Afikoman Maztoh sandwich: "Also the lamb was not eaten outside of Jerusalem, so the afikoman took on much of the significance of the Passover lamb for them." I see how without the lamb in the sandwich, the Afikoman becomes more important. But why should it take on the lamb's meaning? Where does it say that the Jews interpreted it that way?
I couldn't find any Jewish websites that say during their seder ritual: "The AFIKOMAN is our substitute for the Passover Lamb, which in days of old, was the final food of the Seder feast."
He writes: "The Rabbis have rigid codes as to the appearance of the matzah. It must have stripes, be pierced and without leaven. Y'shua was afflicted, striped, pierced and without sin." It makes sense to me that if the last day's bread in Egypt was unleavened, then the Passover bread would be too. Many pictures of Matzoh on the internet have dark brown spots and holes in a checker-board grid pattern. Could you point me to rabbis' rules about stripes and holes?
Do Jews mention the Messiah when they eat Matzoh at Passover?
Sincerely,
Hal Smith