Is “Rapture” an Acceptable Term?
Posted: Sun Feb 07, 2010 2:18 pm
At times, I encounter disagreement among Christians regarding the acceptability of the term “rapture” to describe the migration of the end-time saints to Heaven's gate. My personal preference to describe this event is “translation” [1]; however, I think “rapture” is equally acceptable. I've found the following selection from an article by Chuck Missler to be helpful:
There are those who claim that the word "rapture" isn't in their Bible. That's because they aren't using the Latin translation:
...deinde nos qui vivimus qui relinquimur simul rapiemur cum illis in nubibus obviam Domino in aera et sic semper cum Domino erimus.. -1 Thessalonians 4:17 (Latin Vulgate)
The Latin equivalent of the Greek harpázô is the Latin verb rapio, "to take away by force." In the Latin Vulgate, one of the oldest Bibles in existence, the appropriate tense of rapio appears in verse 17. (Raptus is the past participle of rapio, and our English words "rapt" and "rapture" stem from this past participle.) [2]
[1] http://www.blueletterbible.org/search/t ... tion&t=KJV
[2] http://www.khouse.org/articles/2002/444/print
There are those who claim that the word "rapture" isn't in their Bible. That's because they aren't using the Latin translation:
...deinde nos qui vivimus qui relinquimur simul rapiemur cum illis in nubibus obviam Domino in aera et sic semper cum Domino erimus.. -1 Thessalonians 4:17 (Latin Vulgate)
The Latin equivalent of the Greek harpázô is the Latin verb rapio, "to take away by force." In the Latin Vulgate, one of the oldest Bibles in existence, the appropriate tense of rapio appears in verse 17. (Raptus is the past participle of rapio, and our English words "rapt" and "rapture" stem from this past participle.) [2]
[1] http://www.blueletterbible.org/search/t ... tion&t=KJV
[2] http://www.khouse.org/articles/2002/444/print