Evidence for God from Science

The Bible indicates several times that God is present everywhere (for example, Proverbs 15:3).

My question here is, how would you rationalize why He needed to "go down" to see if things are really as bad as He had heard in the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah? As well as the Bablyon tower?

It's called an anthropomorphism. God also doesn't have wings, hands, or eyes, and yet the Bible seems to speak of Him having those things as well. Basically, the Bible very often pictures God as doing human things--or doing things as a human would do them--so that we can relate to Him. If that were not allowed, it would be basically impossible to speak of Him in any way.

Jac3510 wrote:It's called an anthropomorphism. God also doesn't have wings, hands, or eyes, and yet the Bible seems to speak of Him having those things as well. Basically, the Bible very often pictures God as doing human things--or doing things as a human would do them--so that we can relate to Him. If that were not allowed, it would be basically impossible to speak of Him in any way.

hey sorry for off topic but ummm jac that link you have under your comments doesnt work ( i think disabled) and it seems interesting, could you possibly give me another link that leads to that or something of the sort? thnxxx

Ah, thanks for the reminder, Cet. I took the page down temporarily. I'll update it later.

Jac3510 wrote:It's called an anthropomorphism. God also doesn't have wings, hands, or eyes, and yet the Bible seems to speak of Him having those things as well. Basically, the Bible very often pictures God as doing human things--or doing things as a human would do them--so that we can relate to Him. If that were not allowed, it would be basically impossible to speak of Him in any way.

That's an interesting view. So you think Him "coming down" was not literal?

Another explanation I have seen is that God may not really be omnipresent literally. He has angels watching humans (which would mean that His "eyes" being present everywhere was metaphorically telling us this) and reporting human actions to Him.

I see His "coming down" as the best way for Moses to express what God was doing in a way that makes sense to man and without being reduced to philosophical jargon. It's commonly noted that the Bible isn't a science book. It also isn't a philosophy book. Anyway, I'm not sure why it is all that interesting. It's pretty much the standard view . . . you can always reject any of God's attributes if you like. You can say He is not all-knowing or all-powerful. Of course, then you have to fundamentally redefine what it means to be God in the first place. Anyway, I don't see any reason to believe in a "god" who is not omnipresent, and I see plenty of evidence--both philosophical and biblical--for God as traditionally understood.

I believe God is omnipresent. (Psalm 139:7-8, 9-10)

Christ promises to be with His believers always (Mat. 28:20), and Paul teaches that our bodies are the temples of His Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 6:19). He can certainly be in more than one place at once, and His Triune nature alone dictates this.

There is another option besides rejecting any one of God's attributes. One can accept that God in places, in order to communicate and fellowship with men is at times self-limiting, meaning he doesn't cease to be God with all His attributes, but he can choose in specific places and times to not exercise them. This is clearly seen in Christ in Phil 2:5-11. The question is, does God ever choose to act in this manner outside of the context of Christ's incarnation? The Holy Spirit apparently was self-limiting in some measure before Pentecost at which time that limitation was lifted and the Spirit of Christ came to dwell within men. Can anyone think of other instances where this might be the case?

I often think of an issue that relates to His omnipotence instead, since I always seem to basically equate God's omnipresence with omniscience. He chooses not to control us, but to what degree? He influences us in different ways, but how much? Does He choose to let really bad things happen because He knows of certain beneficial outcomes later, or does He choose not to intervene (or intervene more) because He is letting us see the negative consequences?

Paul answered this way...

Romans 11:33, "Oh, the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are His judgments and His ways past finding out!" NKJV

Job stated this...

Job 26:14, "Indeed these are the mere edges of His ways, And how small a whisper we hear of Him! But the thunder of His power who can understand?"KKJV

Elihu reveals this...

Job 37:23,"As for the Almighty, we cannot find Him; He is excellent in power, In judgment and abundant justice; He does not oppress." NKJV

NASB translates Job 37:23 as: "The Almighty--we cannot find Him; He is exalted in power And He will not do violence to justice and abundant righteousness.

There are some things beyond what our minds can comprehend...
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I love Job (the book).