Evidence for God from Science

What does the Son of Man mean?

CeT-To

It's a semetic idiom that in general refers to humanity and the future state of humanity.

More specifically, it's a phrase that Jesus applied to Himself, which most Hebrews hearing would recognize as a title that claimed a special standing before God as representative of all mankind. The use of the title implied the role of Messiah and representative of man before God. The use of the term in general appears several times in the Old Testament. It appears many times in the NT. Depending on the context it can be seen as a reminder of Jesus' status of not only God but also fully Human as is spelled out more clearly in Phil 2:5-11.

There's all kinds of reference on the internet that a discerning reader can filter through and learn more about the term and how it is used more specifically, especially in several parables of Christ where he uses the term.

ditto to what my southern wandering Canuck friend has said.
Also, keep in mind that God said, "let us make man in our image..." and then created Adam.
Adam, the perfect sinless man created in the image of God had no children. Adam and Eve only had children after they had sinned and experienced separation from God (death). Jesus being born of a virgin without the sin nature was truly the only man ever born in the image of the first man. He was the Son of Man.
Jesus was then called the last Adam in the sense that He replaced Adam. 1 Corinthians 15:45

Canuckster1127 wrote:It's a semetic idiom that in general refers to humanity and the future state of humanity.

More specifically, it's a phrase that Jesus applied to Himself, which most Hebrews hearing would recognize as a title that claimed a special standing before God as representative of all mankind. The use of the title implied the role of Messiah and representative of man before God. The use of the term in general appears several times in the Old Testament. It appears many times in the NT. Depending on the context it can be seen as a reminder of Jesus' status of not only God but also fully Human as is spelled out more clearly in Phil 2:5-11.

There's all kinds of reference on the internet that a discerning reader can filter through and learn more about the term and how it is used more specifically, especially in several parables of Christ where he uses the term.

I was just going to say that it tells about the human side of Him. But, Bart explained it a lot better.

thanx guys but i forgot why Jesus had to be born of a virgin, couldnt the sin nature also come from Mary? Or Jesus got his Man "genes" from her ?

CeT-To wrote:thanx guys but i forgot why Jesus had to be born of a virgin, couldnt the sin nature also come from Mary? Or Jesus got his Man "genes" from her ?

There's different points of view. Some traditions, particularly the Catholic Church hold that Mary herself was immaculately conceived so that she didn't have a sin nature to pass on.

I don't see that as necessary. Jesus' lack of a sin nature and being fully human can be attributed to his own full deity or it can simply be attributed to the will of God the Father. The Bible really doesn't say with a high level of specificity. The explanations in this arena, in my opinion, are more designed to answer questions that a particular vein of philosophy and thinking ask, natural theology which is a decidedly greek tradition. The Bible as a whole, doesn't come from that point of view. So the answers that are often put together on these types of questions are answering questions that the Bible may never have been intended to answer.

Does that help at all?

Canuckster1127 wrote:
There's different points of view. Some traditions, particularly the Catholic Church hold that Mary herself was immaculately conceived so that she didn't have a sin nature to pass on.

I'm not saying this to argue at all, but if Mary was immaculately conceived, then wouldn't her mom had to have been the same, all the way back through time . . . but then, there could be no sinless beginning. If some process made Mary immaculately conceived only, then that same process would've been conceivable for Jesus to begin with.

Anyway, lol, if I find anything to elaborate more on the Son of Man title, I'll add it.

CSLL
You are correct regarding the immaculate conception of Mary. Her mother, and her mother, etc. would have also had to have had immaculate conception. Plus, there is no Scripture to support the immaculate conception of Mary.

The reason that Jesus HAD to be born of a virgin was because God had to be the father. The person (personality made up of mind, heart, and will) and Spirit was the eternal God the Son. When the Holy Spirit of God acted in the womb of Mary, He united the eternal Son of God with a human egg from Mary which was then born as Jesus. If Jesus would have had an earthly father, then He couldn't have been God the Son.
Also, if He had had a human father, he would have inherited Adam's sin nature, and been a sinner like the rest of us.

CeT-To wrote:thanx guys but i forgot why Jesus had to be born of a virgin, couldnt the sin nature also come from Mary? Or Jesus got his Man "genes" from her ?

The sin nature of man is said to be passed down from Adam ( the Adamic seed ), so to be born of a virgin would be to come from a womb that never new the seed of man.
No academic back up for this, just my thought on the subject.

One of Many wrote:

CeT-To wrote:thanx guys but i forgot why Jesus had to be born of a virgin, couldnt the sin nature also come from Mary? Or Jesus got his Man "genes" from her ?

The sin nature of man is said to be passed down from Adam ( the Adamic seed ), so to be born of a virgin would be to come from a womb that never new the seed of man.
No academic back up for this, just my thought on the subject.

There is no biblical back up for it. It's inferred by those who have constructed a framework that needs to explain why something is the way it is. I'm not saying it is wrong necessarily. However, the assumptions are found in the framework, not necessarily the Bible itself.