Evidence for God from Science

Asexuality: Not being sexually attracted (to anyone)

What is the morality regarding this? The most common defenses are of Paul saying to not get married if possible and then also Jesus saying to be like little children. Furthermore, is this a natural thing? In other topics I have heard "homosexuals are just heterosexuals with unnatural affection" or something to that effect; if so, where does that leave asexuality? Is it really a thing? And say it is okay to be asexual; can two asexuals marry? 1 Cor 7:5 seems to say no, but then 1 Cor 7:6 says it's a concession, not a command, therefore maybe it's okay. And if it is, what about an asexual and a heterosexual? If they marry, should the asexual ignore the lack of sexual desire/attraction/etc.?

I think Jesus may say, or imply, that staying unmarried is good too, if you're able to do it . . . but I didn't look this up just now. I know that pastors talk of being gifted with celibacy - that it's possible. So, I don't think there's anything wrong with having no sexual attraction; it could be the gift of celibacy. To me, if two asexuals marry, I don't see what would be wrong with that. If an asexual person married a heterosexual person, that is, with sexual impulses and desires, then I think that would be wrong. There's no way it could ever work out, and I don't see how it could even happen unless the asexual person was deceptive. Unless there's more to your question than I'm getting.