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Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Mon Aug 30, 2010 9:49 pm
by derrick09
This question has to do with salvation and assurance of salvation. To know that we are truly saved are we supposed to sense or feel the Holy Spirit within us? Also do we have to naturally or almost effortlessly produce the fruits of the spirit or good works, and if so does the amount that we produce matter? Because from my experience thus far, in a way at times I guess you can say I've felt the Holy Spirit in me and in a relative sense I produce good works or fruit of the spirit, I"m not perfect at it nor can I really say that I produce a lot of it or produce as much as I want, but because these areas seem to be gray for me currently how can I make them more black and white? God bless guys, thanks. :wave:

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Mon Aug 30, 2010 10:14 pm
by JamesScott
Well honestly, it is my belief that we cannot "know" we are saved because while we are in this life, we are still working our our own salvation with fear and trembling. Our salvation is not yet complete.

However, in reference to how we know we have the Holy Spirit: I think the Christian Faith is much more than a feeling. Sometimes we may feel His presence, and that's great. But sometimes, we may not feel Him. Feelings can be deceptive. I think we should trust the love of the Father that He has given to us Christians the Holy Spirit; regarless of our feelings

And no, we cannot effortlessly produce the fruit of the Spirit. The Christian walk is hard work. We must force ourselves to do good. Yes, we are to rely on the strength of the Holy Spirit, but it does require much effort on our part. I'm still not able to love people like I should...

As for how much of the fruit we should be producing, all I can say is, God is patient. :-}
God bless.

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Mon Aug 30, 2010 11:29 pm
by B. W.
derrick09 wrote:This question has to do with salvation and assurance of salvation. To know that we are truly saved are we supposed to sense or feel the Holy Spirit within us? Also do we have to naturally or almost effortlessly produce the fruits of the spirit or good works, and if so does the amount that we produce matter? Because from my experience thus far, in a way at times I guess you can say I've felt the Holy Spirit in me and in a relative sense I produce good works or fruit of the spirit, I"m not perfect at it nor can I really say that I produce a lot of it or produce as much as I want, but because these areas seem to be gray for me currently how can I make them more black and white? God bless guys, thanks. :wave:
This is a topic derrick where you'll get many comments. Why don't you go to this thread and read the post there... on page three:

http://discussions.godandscience.org/vi ... 3&start=30

By your post, I see that you have concern, this is goood and is evidence enough that you are indeed saved. If not - you would not be here writing and asking this!

Please Read John 10:27, 28, 29 now read Luke 15:4, 5, 6-32 for homework...

Your assignment Below

What do these bible passages tell you?
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Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 5:32 am
by CeT-To
Yes i must admit i also have trouble making up my mind on this matter too....i mean these 3 verses make me wonder if im doing enough...Matthew 7:21-23

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 8:41 am
by jlay
Uh oh. Controversy. If one will simply read the bible rightly divided, these questions are easily answered.
Well honestly, it is my belief that we cannot "know" we are saved because while we are in this life, we are still working our our own salvation with fear and trembling. Our salvation is not yet complete.
Too me, that is a scary faith, and one that denies some of the plainest teaching about salvation in the scripture. I would ask, how have you arrived at such a position?
1John 5:13 "I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God so that you may know that you have eternal life." In other words, he says, the context of what he has just written, is to let you know that you have eternal life. What did he just write? 1 John 5:1. John establishes what makes one born again.
John 3:16
John 5:24
1 John 5:1
Eph. 2:8-9

When referencing Paul about Working out your salvation, you need to understand what is really being said, and to whom. This is written to the beleivers in philippi. "To all the saints in Christ Jesus at Philippi." (Phil 1:1)
The word translated salvation here is used only two other times in Philipians. (Phil 1:19,28) (Translated deliverence, rescued) And neither refer to the status of the believer's eternal security, but to temporal matters. The context is about Paul's imprisonment, and the opposition the church in Philipi was facing. Read all of chapter 1 for context. Their eternal position is already extablished as Paul makes clear in the opening line. further the word translated 'work out' is not the same, or rooted in the same, as the word translated in what we would define as 'works.' Context is everything.

You may not believe. But that would only be because one is ignorant of the promise, or refuses to trust the promise. If one tells another they can not know, then they deny the very scriptures we are to trust. I agree it is not a feeling. We either trust that Christ has saved us, the moment we have true faith in His message. (John 5:24) Or, we trod under foot the promise of Christ.
Our salvation is not yet complete.
There is no other way to accept this, other than saying, your works contribute to what Christ said was finished.

Remember our security rest in His work. If we look to ourselves for proof, then where are we actually saying our faith is?

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 8:49 am
by smiley
CeT-To wrote:Yes i must admit i also have trouble making up my mind on this matter too....i mean these 3 verses make me wonder if im doing enough...Matthew 7:21-23
They shouldn't. Notice that the passage says that these people did not do "the will of the Father".

John 6:40 tells us that the will of the Father is to believe and have eternal life. These people, therefore, never believed. It has nothing to do with their doings.

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 9:10 am
by B. W.
Here is a quote from AMG Word Studies on the word Salvation Jlay refers too which also supports what he stated.

It may Help you and Ce-to and any one else having questions on this matter. It is long, detailed, and somewhat laborious to wade thry but worth doing so:
From AMG Word Studies concerning:

G4991

σωτηρία
sōtēría; gen. sōtērías, fem. noun from sōtḗr (G4990), a savior, deliverer. Safety, deliverance, preservation from danger or destruction.

(I) Particularly and generally: deliverance from danger (Heb11:7; Sept.: Exo14:13; 2Ch20:17); deliverance from slavery (Act7:25); with apó (G575), from (Sept.: 2Sa15:14); with ek (G1537), from enemies (Luk1:71); kéras (G2768), a horn of salvation, meaning a strong deliverer (Luk1:69). Hence generally, meaning welfare, prosperity (Php1:19; Sept.: Gen28:21; Gen44:17; Pro11:14; Jer3:23; Hab3:13; Isa49:8). By implication victory (Rev7:10; Rev12:10; Rev19:1; Sept.: 1Sa14:45; 2Sa19:2; 2Ki5:1). In the OT, salvation can mean deliverance from present danger or trouble, or more especially, from defeat in battle (Sept.: Exo15:2; 1Sa10:19; Job30:15; Pro11:14). However, it is also deliverance from the future condemnation that Jehovah would rightly bring upon Israel (Psa53:6; Isa35:4). Such salvation can also have eschatological connotations (Isa25:9; Isa45:17; Isa46:13; Isa49:6).

(II) In the NT, salvation is deliverance from sin and its spiritual consequences, involving an attachment to the body of Christ, and admission to eternal life with blessedness in the kingdom of Christ (Luk1:77; Luk19:9; Joh4:22; Act16:17; Rom1:16; Rom10:1, Rom10:10; 2Co7:10; Php1:28; 1Th5:8-9; 2Th2:13; 2Ti2:10; 2Ti3:15; Heb1:14; Heb2:3, Heb2:10; Heb5:9; Heb6:9; Heb9:28; 1Pe1:5, 1Pe1:9-10; Jud1:3, salvation by a Messiah; Act4:12 where the def. art. is used; Act13:26; Rom11:11; Rom13:11; 2Co1:6; Eph1:13; Php2:12). Metonymically it means a source or bringer of salvation, Savior (Act13:47 quoted from Isa49:6).

(III) The concept of God as the Savior of the individual finds expression throughout the OT (Job5:15; Job22:29; Job26:2; Psa72:4, Psa72:13; Psa109:31; Pro20:22). Jehovah becomes the Savior of the meek (Psa76:9; Psa149:4 [cf. Job22:29]), and of all that put their trust in Him (Psa86:2 [cf. Psa88:1]). David wrote, "This poor man cried, and the Lord heard him, and saved him out of all his troubles" (Psa34:6). Jehovah saves the upright (Psa37:39-40), and such as be of a contrite spirit (Psa34:18). He hears the cry of them that fear Him and fulfills their desire (Psa 145:19).

This salvation was deliverance not only from the spiritual consequences of sin but from the pollution of sin itself. Such an awareness of the necessity of personal, inner cleansing is expressed in Psa5 1:10, "Create in me a clean heart, O God; and renew a right spirit within me. Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy Holy Spirit from me. Restore unto me the joy of thy salvation; and uphold me with thy free spirit" (Psa51:10-12). Here the salvation for which the Psalmist prays includes deliverance from sin as one of its elements (Psa39:8; Psa79:9; Psa130:7-8). The prophets Jeremiah and Ezekiel give the clearest expression to the idea of salvation as deliverance from sin (Jer31:31-34 [cf. Jer33:8]; Eze36:25-29 [cf. Eze37:28]).

(IV) The crown of this personal salvation is reached in the doctrine of the resurrection. Since the realm of the dead was under God's control, the righteous who had died in distress might still hope after death to see the salvation of God. This hope, which appears in sporadic utterances in Psa49:15; Psa73:24-25, finds a classic expression in Job19:25-27, "I know that my redeemer liveth." This culminates in the doctrine of individual resurrection, which is found in Isa26:18, and repeated in Dan12:1-3.

(V) Thus in the OT we have salvation meaning: (1) Deliverance from present danger or trouble especially from defeat in battle. (2) A preliminary foretaste by the righteous, after death, of the enjoyment of the age to come. It is into a world such as this with concepts of salvation as explained that the Lord Jesus came with His gospel of salvation.

(VI) In the teachings of Jesus the word salvation (sōtēría) is only twice used by Him-in the conversation with Zacchaeus (Luk19:9) and in the interview with the woman of Samaria (Joh4:22).

According to Jesus, to have salvation was to have the kingdom of God within the individual (Luk17:20-21). Salvation was thus treated as a present experience. To the sinful woman in the house of Simon, He declares that her faith hath saved her and bids her go in peace (Luk7:50). To Zacchaeus He says, "This day is salvation come to this house" (Luk19:9).

Jesus taught that when one possesses His salvation, or eternal life, death brings no interruption in the communion of the individual with God. Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob are even now enjoying the resurrection life with God (Luk20:37-38); Lazarus passed at once from this world into Abraham's bosom (Luk16:22); and to the dying thief on the cross the promise is made that, on that same day, he would be with his Master in paradise (Luk23:43).

(VII) Salvation, especially as viewed by Paul, is also an eschatological conception. Those Christians who are alive when the rapture occurs, along with the "dead in Christ," will be caught up to meet the Lord in the air (1Th4:17) and freed from the last trace of the flesh which had hitherto hindered them (Rom8:23; 1Co15:50-52) and shall enter into the joys of His heavenly kingdom. It is this glorious experience-still in the future-to which Paul refers when he uses salvation as an eschatological term (Rom13:11).

(VIII) But salvation is not merely deliverance from future punishment; it includes also freedom from sin as a present power. Indeed, it is this present deliverance which alone makes the future possible. Through union with Christ, the believer has become a new creature (2Co5:17). He has died to sin (Rom6:2), crucified the flesh with the passions and the lusts thereof (Gal5:24), and entered upon a new spiritual life of righteousness, peace, and joy (Rom14:17). He is a saved man (Rom8:24; 1Co1:18; 2Co2:15), reconciled to God (Rom5:1), claiming and receiving the privileges of a son (Rom8:14-15). He rejoices in daily experiences of a Father's grace, knowing how to glory even in tribulations (Rom5:3), since he has learned that all things work together for good to them that love God (Rom8:28). He continues to have his conflict with sin, but as he once felt himself to be the slave of the flesh, sold unto sin (Rom7:14), now he knows himself to be its master. The law of the spirit of life in Christ Jesus has made him free from the law of sin and of death (Rom8:2). And the day is coming when, through the transformation of his body, he shall be freed from whatever defiling contact with sin still remains (Rom8:23).

(IX) In the Gospel of John and in 1 John, salvation is a present eschatological and final eschatological experience (Joh3:15-16, Joh3:36; Joh5:24; Joh6:47; Joh10:28; Joh17:2; 1Jn2:18, 1Jn2:28; 1Jn3:2; 1Jn4:17 [cf. Joh5:28; Joh6:44, Joh6:54; Joh21:22]). The éschaton has begun, it has been inaugurated and eternal life is already the possession of all who believe on Christ. He that hears Christ's word and believes Him that sent Him, "hath eternal life and turneth not into judgment, but hath passed out of death unto life" (a.t. [Joh5:24 [cf. Joh3:36; Joh5:39-40; 1Jn4:15; 1Jn5:12]). Christ is represented as the bread of life (Joh6:48), of which, if a man eat, he shall live forever (Joh6:51). He is the resurrection and life (Joh11:25), and whosoever believes on Him shall never die (Joh11:26 [cf. also the passages which speak of regeneration {e.g., Joh3:3; 1Jn3:9; 1Jn5:1}]).

Final (or consummated) eschatological salvation is connected with the redemption of the universe. Whatever is hopelessly evil-whether in nature, man, or spirit-shall at last be brought under Christ's feet. No foe will remain to dispute the authority of Christ or mar the glories of His eternal kingdom. The last enemy to be destroyed is death (1Co15:26). Not until then will Christ's saving work be finished, and He restore to the Father the power given to Him, that in the redeemed universe God may be all in all (1Co15:28). In order for saved man to live in a congruous environment, the Lord will create a new earth and a new heaven, in which he will live in peace and righteousness (Rom8:19-23; Rev21:1).

Syn.: lútrōsis (G3085), a ransoming, redemption; apolútrōsis (G629), salvation, ransom in full; sōtḗrion (G4992), the means of salvation.
Ant.: apṓleia (G684), perdition, loss; katastrophḗ (G2692), destruction; ólethros (G3639), ruin; phthorá (G5356), corruption.

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 10:41 am
by JamesScott
jlay,

I disagree with your interpretation of Scripture, and I'm not going to answer how we are born again right now. At this time, I would like to explain further what I mean when I say we can't know we're saved, and why I believe this. When I say we cannot "know," it is not because God lacks goodness, but because I am sinful. I am a Christian today. However, I may leave the Christian Faith a year from now.
If you say "I know I'm saved" today, but leave the Faith a year from now, I guess you were wrong...

Watch this video when you have the time. It lasts 3:06. This is a very good explanation on how I believe we are saved.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sAlCze3ZFjA

As Bishop Kallistos Ware once said, "I was saved, I am being saved, and I will be saved."

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 12:53 pm
by RickD
JamesScott, I think it is important for people here to be aware of some of the teachings that you are promoting, so they can make their own decisions about what you are saying. That link is from a group called "Orthodox Christianity". They believe:
Your first question was, "What are your beliefs about the Virgin Mary--most particularly do you pray to her?"

We believe that the Virgin Mary is the Mother of God. Through her He Who was God before the ages took on our human nature without relinquishing His divine nature or confusing or "meshing" it with the human nature in any way. The Mother of God is often referred to as the "New Eve," for she said "yes" to God whereas the first Eve said "no." We believe that the Mother of God was sinless of her own free will, that she remains ever-virgin, and that she is the "living tabernacle" of God inasmuch as her womb, as one hymn states, becomes "more spacious than the heavens" by carrying within it the Savior of the world, Jesus Christ.
Also:
EVER-VIRGIN

From the very early years of the Church, Mary was called not only Virgin, but Ever-Virgin. She was seen as never having had a sexual union with Joseph, before or after the birth of Christ. Ezekiel 44:1-2 is a passage often referred to by the early Fathers in this regard. It states: "Then He brought me back to the outer gate of the sanctuary which faces toward the east, but it was shut. And the Lord said to me, 'This gate shall be shut; it shall not be opened, and no man shall enter by it, because the Lord God of Israel has entered by it; therefore it shall be shut.'"

In traditional interpretation of this passage, Mary is the temple and Christ is the Prince of Peace. The gate mentioned is seen as a picture of Christ's passage through the door of Mary's womb. You might not find that interpretation in some of today's commentaries, but it was held by the great majority of early Church Fathers, as well as many of the Reformation leaders.

At this point, however, a very valid question can be raised. If she remained a virgin, why does the Gospel of Matthew tell us that Joseph knew not his wife until after Christ was born (Matthew 1:25)?

From a Scriptural standpoint, the presence of the phrase "until she had brought forth her firstborn Son," does not automatically mean that Joseph must have known her afterward. This is because in both Greek and Hebrew the word 'until' or 'to' can have several different meanings. We find it in II Samuel 6:23: "Michal, daughter of Saul, had not child to (until) the day of her death." It is used again in Matthew 28:20 where the risen Christ says "Lo, I am with you always, even to (until) the end of the world." And in Deuteronomy 34:6 we read "Moses was buried in a valley in the land of Moab, but no one knows his grave to (until) this day."

Obviously the use of the word in these passages does not imply that Michal had a child after her death, that Christ will depart at the end of the world, or that Moses' burial place was discovered the day Deuteronomy 34:6 was written. By the same token, the word 'until' in Matthew 1:25 does not mean that Joseph and Mary began a sexual union after Christ was born. Such a teaching is found nowhere in Scripture and is contrary to the consistent voice of the entire early Church.

But doesn't the Bible also mention other brothers and sisters of Christ? Who are they and where did they come from?

For one thing, they are never directly called the sons and daughters of Mary and Joseph. In several passages the Bible speaks of the children or relatives as "brothers." Abraham and Lot are called brothers, although Lot was actually Abraham's nephew. And Jacob and Laban are called brothers, even though Jacob was the son of Rebecca, Laban's sister.

Scripture is therefore silent concerning the nature of this relationship between Christ and these brothers and sisters. Early Fathers differed slightly in their understanding of what the terms meant. Some, such as Saint Ambrose, believed that they were children of a former marriage between Joseph and a wife who died prior to Matthew chapter 1. Others taught that they were cousins. But on one point, almost everyone is in agreement: Mary and Joseph had no sexual union whatsoever, before or after the birth of Christ.

I must say in all candor that had my betrothed been the woman chosen by the Father to bear His eternal Son in the flesh, my view of her would have been utterly transformed and my honor for her infinitely heightened. Imagine being betrothed to the Mother of God. It was so with Joseph. His betrothed was ever-virgin.

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 1:46 pm
by JamesScott
RickD,
JamesScott, I think it is important for people here to be aware of some of the teachings that you are promoting, so they can make their own decisions about what you are saying.
\

Sure. Although, I'm not really here to "promote" anything. I'm just stating what I now believe.

Your first question was, "What are your beliefs about the Virgin Mary--most particularly do you pray to her?"
We believe that the Virgin Mary is the Mother of God. Through her He Who was God before the ages took on our human nature without relinquishing His divine nature or confusing or "meshing" it with the human nature in any way. The Mother of God is often referred to as the "New Eve," for she said "yes" to God whereas the first Eve said "no." We believe that the Mother of God was sinless of her own free will, that she remains ever-virgin, and that she is the "living tabernacle" of God inasmuch as her womb, as one hymn states, becomes "more spacious than the heavens" by carrying within it the Savior of the world, Jesus Christ.
Is there a reason you decided to quote something about the Virgin Mary? I'm just curious if there's a reason you jumped to that.

This quote is correct. Although, about this statement, "...was sinless of her own free will,"...

Only One Person was completely sinless in mind, word, or deed; in knowledge or in ignorance; and that is our Lord Jesus Christ.

Although, I do think the Church teaches that she is free of individual, or personal, sin, as she always said yes to God, and no to sin. However, even the Virgin Mary fought with sinfulness, and suffered the effects of the Fall.

As it states in a book I borrowed from my church library:

"Only Jesus Christ is completely pure of every sin, while all men, being born of Adam, have borne a flesh subject to the law of sin. Many have correctly indicated that the Virgin Mary, just as all men, endured a battle with sinfulness, but was victorious over temptations and was saved by her divine Son."

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 1:57 pm
by JamesScott
From the very early years of the Church, Mary was called not only Virgin, but Ever-Virgin. She was seen as never having had a sexual union with Joseph, before or after the birth of Christ. Ezekiel 44:1-2 is a passage often referred to by the early Fathers in this regard. It states: "Then He brought me back to the outer gate of the sanctuary which faces toward the east, but it was shut. And the Lord said to me, 'This gate shall be shut; it shall not be opened, and no man shall enter by it, because the Lord God of Israel has entered by it; therefore it shall be shut.'"

In traditional interpretation of this passage, Mary is the temple and Christ is the Prince of Peace. The gate mentioned is seen as a picture of Christ's passage through the door of Mary's womb. You might not find that interpretation in some of today's commentaries, but it was held by the great majority of early Church Fathers, as well as many of the Reformation leaders.

At this point, however, a very valid question can be raised. If she remained a virgin, why does the Gospel of Matthew tell us that Joseph knew not his wife until after Christ was born (Matthew 1:25)?

From a Scriptural standpoint, the presence of the phrase "until she had brought forth her firstborn Son," does not automatically mean that Joseph must have known her afterward. This is because in both Greek and Hebrew the word 'until' or 'to' can have several different meanings. We find it in II Samuel 6:23: "Michal, daughter of Saul, had not child to (until) the day of her death." It is used again in Matthew 28:20 where the risen Christ says "Lo, I am with you always, even to (until) the end of the world." And in Deuteronomy 34:6 we read "Moses was buried in a valley in the land of Moab, but no one knows his grave to (until) this day."

Obviously the use of the word in these passages does not imply that Michal had a child after her death, that Christ will depart at the end of the world, or that Moses' burial place was discovered the day Deuteronomy 34:6 was written. By the same token, the word 'until' in Matthew 1:25 does not mean that Joseph and Mary began a sexual union after Christ was born. Such a teaching is found nowhere in Scripture and is contrary to the consistent voice of the entire early Church.

But doesn't the Bible also mention other brothers and sisters of Christ? Who are they and where did they come from?

For one thing, they are never directly called the sons and daughters of Mary and Joseph. In several passages the Bible speaks of the children or relatives as "brothers." Abraham and Lot are called brothers, although Lot was actually Abraham's nephew. And Jacob and Laban are called brothers, even though Jacob was the son of Rebecca, Laban's sister.

Scripture is therefore silent concerning the nature of this relationship between Christ and these brothers and sisters. Early Fathers differed slightly in their understanding of what the terms meant. Some, such as Saint Ambrose, believed that they were children of a former marriage between Joseph and a wife who died prior to Matthew chapter 1. Others taught that they were cousins. But on one point, almost everyone is in agreement: Mary and Joseph had no sexual union whatsoever, before or after the birth of Christ.

I must say in all candor that had my betrothed been the woman chosen by the Father to bear His eternal Son in the flesh, my view of her would have been utterly transformed and my honor for her infinitely heightened. Imagine being betrothed to the Mother of God. It was so with Joseph. His betrothed was ever-virgin.
Yes, this is correct, too.

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 2:02 pm
by RickD
JamesScott,
Is there a reason you decided to quote something about the Virgin Mary? I'm just curious if there's a reason you jumped to that.
I watched the link , and noticed that it had Orthodox Christianity written all over it. So, I did a little search on 'what is orthodox christianity', and that was the first thing that stuck out to me. "sinless of her own free will" isn't what my Bible says. And, I guess the part where it says:"We believe that the Virgin Mary is the Mother of God." stood out as well. Wasn't Mary the mother of the MAN Jesus? Does God really have a mother?

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 3:11 pm
by JamesScott
RickD,
sinless of her own free will" isn't what my Bible says.
The Bible doesn't have a whole lot to say about the Virgin Mary. And as I said, she is not completely free from sin as her Son is.
And, I guess the part where it says:"We believe that the Virgin Mary is the Mother of God." stood out as well. Wasn't Mary the mother of the MAN Jesus? Does God really have a mother?
Any titles we give the Virgin Mary are a testimony to who Jesus Christ is. She did not give birth, eternally, to God. But when God took on human flesh, He chose her to give Birth to Him that He might come into the world. In that sense, she is the Mother of God; because her Son is God.

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Tue Aug 31, 2010 10:44 pm
by derrick09
After seeing the video myself, this doesn't sound like orthodox Christianity in the traditional sense, it may be more like Orthodox Church of America or OCA to be exact. I don't see a lot of indication in the Bible talking about Mary being the Holy Mother of God. Also the video seems to indicate that you have to put forth effort or works in order to obtain and maintain salvation. Is this what the OCA teaches? It also sounds similar to Roman Catholicism.

Re: Question about salvation assurance...

Posted: Wed Sep 01, 2010 4:37 am
by JamesScott
Derrick09
After seeing the video myself, this doesn't sound like orthodox Christianity in the traditional sense, it may be more like Orthodox Church of America or OCA to be exact.
Well, lets just say its not Evangelical Protestantism.
It is Eastern Orthodox Christianity. Whether its Greek Orthodox, Russian Orthodox. O.C.A., etc. its all the same Faith.
I don't see a lot of indication in the Bible talking about Mary being the Holy Mother of God.
All Christians believe Jesus is the Incarnate God. Since this is so, the Virgin Mary should be called the Mother of God. She did not give birth to God in eternity past, but she did give birth to Him in this world. She is the way the Incarnate God came into the world. For God to truly take on our human flesh, He had to be born of a woman.
Also the video seems to indicate that you have to put forth effort or works in order to obtain and maintain salvation. Is this what the OCA teaches?
We believe that we are saved by "Synergy." That is, we cooperate with the Grace of God.

God came to save us. Jesus became Incarnate, Died on the Cross, Resurrected from the dead, and Ascended into heaven to save us. We cannot save ourselves.
However, once we are "in Christ," we must work out our own salvation {Phil. 2:12}, because we are not saved by faith alone {St. James 2:24}. Our faith must be expressed in our works and how we live our lives. It's not enough to simply say, "I believe." We must prove our faith by our deeds.