Well to use the author's own words
This is a completely ridiculous argument, based upon faulty assumptions and faulty data.
Lets examine the data he presents:
The assumption is that the average family size has always been the same and that the population growth rate has always been 2%.
It is actually less than 1.6% at present.
So what was it
100,000 years ago, if it is less today could it have been more in the past? China had to pass laws for people to only have one child obviously in the past China's growth rate was way higher.
The increase in family size and longevity has occurred only within the last century.
And what data do we have to support this. Sure man in living longer in the last century then some of the previous centuries but can the author prove that man didn't live longer say 20,000 years ago? There is no data to back this up is there. Isn't he assuming many things?
How many kids did a family 20,000years ago have? Is there any data that tells us this? It could have been 30 or more, it could have been less than 1. Evolution doesn't tell us it has to be inferred for the theory to work.
Before the turn of the 20th century, the average life expectancy was 40 years.
What was it in the first century? What was it when evolution says modern man came on the scene? Isn't he also guilty of assuming, by saying that before the turn of the 20th century people did not live long, therefore man never lived longer than 40 years before that?
The advent of modern medicine has radically increased the population growth rate for the last 60-80 years.
Is there more disease today than say 10,000 years ago. It seems like every year there are more and more strains of the flu. Does evolution know how many disease and illness the first "modern man" had to deal with. Do they know if he has any natural remedies to fix what ailed him? Could it be there are more disease and viruses today than there have ever been from the beginning.
From a creationist point of view I would say that originally the first created world had no disease. It would have been only after the "fall" that disease began.
In fact, from 2000 B.C. to 1 A.D., the world's population rose from 108 million to 138 million (only 0.01% growth rate/year).2
First of all I would like to know what
world wide census was taken in 2,000 b.c. Sure even in the Bible we know that the Romans took census, but not of the whole world. But in any case this point matters not. The argument is not what the population has done since recorded time, it is how can a population that includes "modern man" living here for even 100,000 years remain at a stand still. You would have to have the same number of people die each day that are born each day. You really have to reach to come up with an answer and understand that you only have theory because"modern man" also saw no need to keep any records for 100,000 years either. But that is another topic.
and the Bible claims at least 1000 generations (~40,000 years).3 In addition, the Bible says that limits to population growth prior to the flood were due to extreme violence and rampant murder (Genesis 6).4
I'm really having a hard time figuring out what side of the fence this guy is arguing from. The argument is against evolutionary theory saying that modern man has been around for 100,000 years. Why is he referring to the Bible for data?
I have yet to hear an argument that can explain how "modern man" could have remained on this planet with no population growth for 100,000 years. Now keep in mind I am only arguing against what evolution would call "modern man" not his entire ancestry.
Henry Morris was being kind IMO by giving the statistics he did. He used a lower growth rate .o5 and 2.5 children per family. This is a modest estimation. He does use a 1,000,000 year time which is fine if you look at what evolution is teaching about the history of mankind. I was being even more generous with starting with what evolution would call "modern man" at 100,000 years.