jlay wrote:Harp,
That is a faulty way of looking at it. I'd say every believer in this forum believes, "the Bible says that there are gifts of (speaking in) tongues and interpretation of tongues."
That really isn't the issue, and it's not a sound exegetical method. It is wrong to say things that imply that you beleive the bible, and those who don't practice tongues, don't. Which is in fact what you are doing. I believe in tongues, and so does any believer that trust the scritpures. The issue isn't whether we believe the bible, but whether we believe that what is going on in the charasmatic movement is a genuine representation and continuation of what the scripture reveals. Based on this logic, we could apply the same thing to modern faith healers. The Bibles teaches lots of things that we don't give a 2nd thought to saying are no longer in practice today. Although miracles happen, they most certainly do not happen as in the apostolic era where even the shadow of an apostle would heal. There is a lot of theory as to why, but the point is that things ARE different.
A good example is new scriptural revelation. We know that as Paul was writing, the canon was not closed. But something happened at some point in the 1st century, and as Christians we believe the HS officially stopped inspiring men to pen the written word. We KNOW it STOPPED. We know that by the time the last contemporary apostle of Christ's died, that something was finished and closed, never to open again. What if someone said, since the Bible supports the gift of prophecy, that gift must be operating today, and therefore the writings of a prophet today should be added to the Bible?
1 cor. does not give a descriptive example of such tongues. Acts 2 does. Acts 2 doesn't leave any question as to what was being heard. First Cor. does. I can study the plain reading of tongues in Acts 2 and say for certain that there are zero verified or recorded cases of anything like this happening in the last 1,900 years. If you have different evidence then please provide. So, we know that what happened on the day of pentecost is not what we see today in the charismatic movement. Not by a long shot. The charasmatic movement is therefore left with the text of 1 Cor. to explain their actions as tongues of angels, or some heavenly language. Is this possible? I suppose. And what someone does in private in their prayer life is really of no concern to me. In fact, I would love nothing more than to experience anything that will grow and edify my prayer life.
I would guess you presume, based not on the plain reading of scripture but your theology, that 'interpretation' means someone interpreting the babbling (for lack of a better word) of another person. I think the simplest reading of this says that interpretation means that someone is gifted to understand other tongues (languages). And could in fact have nothing to do with hearing someone else's babbling and then offering some sort of clear interpretation as if the babbling actually meant something.
The HS does distribute as He wills, and just as He willed that God breathed scripture was closed, I believe that authentic tongues is closed, for now at least. I believe that the charasmatic movement, although often sincere and well intentioned, has opened doors for some of the greatest charlatans of our era. Todd Bentley as one prime example.
Much of what is written in 1 Cor. is a rebuke of the Corinthian church, yet so often it is read in a different manner. This ignores context. I won't say I fully understand all that was going on in that church, but neither does anyone else. We simply can't be there. I suspect, that if we were present in this church we'd have a much clearer view of what Paul was instructing in this letter.
Hi jlay-
Tina asked a "yes or no" question that I answered according to my beliefs based on what I read in the Bible. No where did I say or imply that Christians who don't
practice tongues don't believe the Bible. On the contrary, the gift of tongues is distributed by the Holy Spirit as He wills and not all speak in tongues. Christians who don't receive this gift are no less Christian. They are gifted in one or more of the other gifts. I quoted 1Cor. 12:4-11 to support why I believe "all that stuff about "speaking in tongues". As far as I know the gifts have not ceased.
You wrote, "Although miracles happen, they most certainly do not happen as in the apostolic era where even the shadow of an apostle would heal. There is a lot of theory as to why, but the point is that things ARE different." My theory is over-education in the five senses. Jesus said that we must have the faith of a child to enter the kingdom of heaven. Is a child highly educated? No. Does a child believe everything until it is taught not to? Yes.
Jesus sent out His disciples out to the surrounding towns to preach the gospel and heal the sick. When they returned to Jesus, they were pumped. They had proclaimed the gospel and healed many. Even the demons were subject to them. I believe that the gospel and healing go together. Maybe through the years the gospel has been watered down.
You compare Acts 2 and 1 Corinthians (14) as two examples of tongues. You said that Acts 2 is self-explanatory and I agree with you. However we disagree about 1 Corinthians. in the first five verses, Paul lays it out.
the Apostle Paul wrote:
14 Pursue love, yet desire earnestly spiritual gifts, but especially that you may prophesy. 2 For one who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God; for no one understands, but in his spirit he speaks mysteries. 3 But one who prophesies speaks to men for edification and exhortation and consolation. 4 One who speaks in a tongue edifies himself; but one who prophesies edifies the church. 5 Now I wish that you all spoke in tongues, but even more that you would prophesy; and greater is one who prophesies than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may receive edifying.1 Cor 14:1-5 NASU
In this case, Paul said that one who speaks in a tongue speaks to God and no one understands and that spiritually he is speaking mysteries. This example of tongues is obviously different from the example in Acts 2. The "tongues" in 1Cor. is for self-edification, unless there is interpretation then the church is edified, whereas the Acts 2 "tongues" is for the edification of others. In 1Cor.14:13-15, Paul further describes the "problem".
The Apostle Paul wrote:
13 Therefore let one who speaks in a tongue pray that he may interpret. 14 For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. 15 What is the outcome then? I will pray with the spirit and I will pray with the mind also; I will sing with the spirit and I will sing with the mind also. 1 Cor 14:13-15 NASU
Paul said that in 1Cor. there must be an interpretation of tongues, otherwise, no one understands. In Acts 2, there was no need for an interpretation. So, obviously, there are at least two kinds of tongues.
jlay wrote:I would guess you presume, based not on the plain reading of scripture but your theology, that 'interpretation' means someone interpreting the babbling (for lack of a better word) of another person. I think the simplest reading of this says that interpretation means that someone is gifted to understand other tongues (languages). And could in fact have nothing to do with hearing someone else's babbling and then offering some sort of clear interpretation as if the babbling actually meant something.
You guessed wrong. I base my position on the plain reading of scripture. What gift is it if a person understands the language he is interpreting? The gift is when the interpretor does NOT understand the language. I would not be so quick to say when someone babbles (or speaks in tongues for a better phrase) it has no meaning. Or to say that the interpretation is not related to the tongues. Isn't that presuming on God?
jlay wrote:I believe that authentic tongues is closed, for now at least.
Is "authentic tongues" the example in Acts 2? If Acts 2 is "authentic tongues" where the hearers understand the speaker, why is there a gift of interpretation of tongues? Is the example in 1 Cor. not authentic? Paul spoke in tongues that were not fruitful to his mind before the canon was closed. Is that not as authentic as Acts 2?
Paul rebukes the Corinthians as far as speaking in tongues thusly: "Therefore if the whole church assembles together and all speak in tongues, and ungifted men or unbelievers enter, will they not say that you are mad?" (1 Cor 14:23 NASU) All of those assembled were speaking in tongues simultaneously, thereby causing confusion. The rebuke was not that they were speaking in tongues, but that they were all speaking at the same time. I've been in churches where all the people were singing and praying in tongues together and it was noisy and confusing and definitely out of order. The solution was: "What is the outcome then, brethren? When you assemble, each one has a psalm, has a teaching, has a revelation, has a tongue, has an interpretation. Let all things be done for edification. 27 If anyone speaks in a tongue, it should be by two or at the most three, and each in turn, and one must interpret; 28 but if there is no interpreter, he must keep silent in the church; and let him speak to himself and to God. (1 Cor 14:26-28 NASU)
The bottom line is that Paul encouraged all to seek to prophesy (edify, exhort and console the body of Christ 1Cor. 14:3) and NOT to forbid speaking in tongues (1Cor 14:39).