Sex before marriage
Posted: Fri May 11, 2012 6:30 pm
So, I know this could go in the moral and ethical affairs board, but I'm looking for the Biblical view on this. I've seen a bunch of different opinions on the board about this, but most of the time these opinions are based more on reasoning rather than Scripture. Now, that makes a decent amount of sense, as Scripture isn't particularly explicit about this issue, as it wasn't really a problem in those times. But I find it interesting that people can look at the same passages and see them saying different things, so I wanted to start a discussion/debate seeing what the most intellectually honest position is.
Now, the one side argues that any sex outside of marriage is wrong, whether it be casual sex or between people who are engaged.
The other side I've heard most often is that sex before marriage is not sin as long as it's within the Biblically accepted standards of relationships (both believers, consensual, committed, long-term, etc.). Some say that sexual compatibility is important for relationships, and that to avoid the whole area of the relationship until the marriage commitment can create issues. Others say that for people who plan on getting married but are simply waiting for practical reasons (ie, finishing college), then there's no sin as it's the same commitment anyway and it's not simple "fornication."
The passages in question are normally Hebrews 13:4, 1 Corinthians 6:9, and the four rules given to the Gentile believers in Acts 15. Also, Deuteronomy 22:13-21 is used, but I believe this is in error, as this is about a girl who claims to be a virgin being given to a man and being found a liar.
To be even more specific, the question also revolves around the Greek word "porneria." It's the word often translated as "fornication" in the NASB and some other translations, and is variously translated as "sexual immorality," "harlotry," "whoremongering" and other things depending on the translation. The word itself literally means "harlotry" according to my knowledge (feel free to correct me if I'm wrong), but is used to describe a number of different sexual sins. It's used in Matthew 19:9 where Jesus uses it clearly to talk about adultery. Paul uses it in 1 Corinthians 5:1 to refer to a sexual relationship between a man and his father's wife.
I cannot seem to come to a conclusion on this issue. I don't want any answer that simply makes sense, or one that sounds right, I want one that's Biblical. So, let's talk. What do you guys think?
Edit: What do you guys think of this article?
http://patriot.net/~bmcgin/pearl-porneia.html
Now, the one side argues that any sex outside of marriage is wrong, whether it be casual sex or between people who are engaged.
The other side I've heard most often is that sex before marriage is not sin as long as it's within the Biblically accepted standards of relationships (both believers, consensual, committed, long-term, etc.). Some say that sexual compatibility is important for relationships, and that to avoid the whole area of the relationship until the marriage commitment can create issues. Others say that for people who plan on getting married but are simply waiting for practical reasons (ie, finishing college), then there's no sin as it's the same commitment anyway and it's not simple "fornication."
The passages in question are normally Hebrews 13:4, 1 Corinthians 6:9, and the four rules given to the Gentile believers in Acts 15. Also, Deuteronomy 22:13-21 is used, but I believe this is in error, as this is about a girl who claims to be a virgin being given to a man and being found a liar.
To be even more specific, the question also revolves around the Greek word "porneria." It's the word often translated as "fornication" in the NASB and some other translations, and is variously translated as "sexual immorality," "harlotry," "whoremongering" and other things depending on the translation. The word itself literally means "harlotry" according to my knowledge (feel free to correct me if I'm wrong), but is used to describe a number of different sexual sins. It's used in Matthew 19:9 where Jesus uses it clearly to talk about adultery. Paul uses it in 1 Corinthians 5:1 to refer to a sexual relationship between a man and his father's wife.
I cannot seem to come to a conclusion on this issue. I don't want any answer that simply makes sense, or one that sounds right, I want one that's Biblical. So, let's talk. What do you guys think?
Edit: What do you guys think of this article?
http://patriot.net/~bmcgin/pearl-porneia.html