Women defiling men
Posted: Tue Aug 13, 2013 8:36 am
Rev: 14:1-5 NIV
"Then I looked, and there before me was the Lamb, standing on Mount Zion, and with him 144,000 who had his name and his Father’s name written on their foreheads. 2 And I heard a sound from heaven like the roar of rushing waters and like a loud peal of thunder. The sound I heard was like that of harpists playing their harps. 3 And they sang a new song before the throne and before the four living creatures and the elders. No one could learn the song except the 144,000 who had been redeemed from the earth. 4 These are those who did not defile themselves with women, for they remained virgins. They follow the Lamb wherever he goes. They were purchased from among mankind and offered as firstfruits to God and the Lamb. 5 No lie was found in their mouths; they are blameless."
So, about that... Women are defiling to men?
Argument: It's talking about the men who were not fornicators, adulteress, etc.
Argument against: 1) Perhaps if it didn't say 'for they remained virgins' you could argue that... but now I can't, because, marriage.
2) The sentence appears to be very clear and straight forward to interpret. Yes, the following sentences go into further detail about their purity, but if you used its context, then in reverse, wouldn't that mean that men who do not remain virgins have cause to be blamed as they defile themselves? By not being virgins...
Argument: Thinking about cultural context. Women of the era were uneducated and domestic with not even a spark of thought that they should be educated and building up societies alongside men as partners. (hence the reason why they weren't allowed to speak, ergo, direct a conversation in church. They have no grounds because the foundation was never given to them to comprehend and perceive. Even if the interest was there, the knowledge [and inability to read] was not accessible to them)
So... How could a woman progress in such a society? Jezebel vs. submission? Submission without comprehension. I would think that would give more opportunity and a more natural feel to rebel against submission more-so than if the ability to be educated were available.
Back to Jezebel. The only way to 'make a living' would be prostitution if unsupported. The only way to control would be through emotions and physical appeal.
If any of this thought process holds weight, would that mean women in general (or men if uneducated and domesticated) in those times were more prone to sinful nature?
I don't see any of this holding weight.
I'm out of arguments. Someone figure it out
"Then I looked, and there before me was the Lamb, standing on Mount Zion, and with him 144,000 who had his name and his Father’s name written on their foreheads. 2 And I heard a sound from heaven like the roar of rushing waters and like a loud peal of thunder. The sound I heard was like that of harpists playing their harps. 3 And they sang a new song before the throne and before the four living creatures and the elders. No one could learn the song except the 144,000 who had been redeemed from the earth. 4 These are those who did not defile themselves with women, for they remained virgins. They follow the Lamb wherever he goes. They were purchased from among mankind and offered as firstfruits to God and the Lamb. 5 No lie was found in their mouths; they are blameless."
So, about that... Women are defiling to men?
Argument: It's talking about the men who were not fornicators, adulteress, etc.
Argument against: 1) Perhaps if it didn't say 'for they remained virgins' you could argue that... but now I can't, because, marriage.
2) The sentence appears to be very clear and straight forward to interpret. Yes, the following sentences go into further detail about their purity, but if you used its context, then in reverse, wouldn't that mean that men who do not remain virgins have cause to be blamed as they defile themselves? By not being virgins...
Argument: Thinking about cultural context. Women of the era were uneducated and domestic with not even a spark of thought that they should be educated and building up societies alongside men as partners. (hence the reason why they weren't allowed to speak, ergo, direct a conversation in church. They have no grounds because the foundation was never given to them to comprehend and perceive. Even if the interest was there, the knowledge [and inability to read] was not accessible to them)
So... How could a woman progress in such a society? Jezebel vs. submission? Submission without comprehension. I would think that would give more opportunity and a more natural feel to rebel against submission more-so than if the ability to be educated were available.
Back to Jezebel. The only way to 'make a living' would be prostitution if unsupported. The only way to control would be through emotions and physical appeal.
If any of this thought process holds weight, would that mean women in general (or men if uneducated and domesticated) in those times were more prone to sinful nature?
I don't see any of this holding weight.
I'm out of arguments. Someone figure it out