Why?
Posted: Sun Jan 19, 2014 8:31 pm
Why would the bible say that you must marry your rapist?
"The heavens declare the glory of God; the skies proclaim the work of his hands." (Psalm 19:1)
https://discussions.godandscience.org/
Correct.. The passage is not referring to rape at all. We had a discussion about that some time ago..Danieltwotwenty wrote:It doesn't, a poor translation says that. Read a book called "Is God A Moral Monster" by Paul Copan, it explains that passage in there.
Here is a modern translation from the ESV Duet 22:28
“If a man meets a virgin who is not betrothed, and seizes her and lies with her, and they are found, 29 then the man who lay with her shall give to the father of the young woman fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife, because he has violated her. He may not divorce her all his days.
Rape was not involved, it was purely consensual. The word that was wrongly translated meant unlawful, because they were not married it was considered unlawful intercourse.
I will have a look in my concordance when I get home to see if I can find the Hebrew word.
I had a look at the Torah online and this was their translation of the verse
" If a man finds a virgin girl who was not betrothed, and seizes her and lies with her, and they are found,"
And a fair one too, I mean you ruined someone's life, now you have to provide for her all your life and be responsible towards her.PaulSacramento wrote:One could argue that the word "seize" implies the use of force.
The hebrew word taphas means to seize or handle or to lay hold of.
I guess it can be translated a few ways BUT it does seem to imply something that COULD be forceful.
IMO, it meant that if a man got a hold of a virgin that was not engaged to be married and had sex with her and they were found out, he would have to marry her and be under the rule of her father forever.
Quite the penalty in those days.
Indeed and it was a far "better" system than what was around on those days in the neighboring nations.neo-x wrote:And a fair one too, I mean you ruined someone's life, now you have to provide for her all your life and be responsible towards her.PaulSacramento wrote:One could argue that the word "seize" implies the use of force.
The hebrew word taphas means to seize or handle or to lay hold of.
I guess it can be translated a few ways BUT it does seem to imply something that COULD be forceful.
IMO, it meant that if a man got a hold of a virgin that was not engaged to be married and had sex with her and they were found out, he would have to marry her and be under the rule of her father forever.
Quite the penalty in those days.
It couldn't be rape however.. Why? Because the penalty for rape in the Bible is death.. Deuteronomy 22:25–27PaulSacramento wrote:One could argue that the word "seize" implies the use of force.
The hebrew word taphas means to seize or handle or to lay hold of.
I guess it can be translated a few ways BUT it does seem to imply something that COULD be forceful.
IMO, it meant that if a man got a hold of a virgin that was not engaged to be married and had sex with her and they were found out, he would have to marry her and be under the rule of her father forever.
Quite the penalty in those days.
Yes, I agree.Gman wrote:It couldn't be rape however.. Why? Because the penalty for rape in the Bible is death.. Deuteronomy 22:25–27PaulSacramento wrote:One could argue that the word "seize" implies the use of force.
The hebrew word taphas means to seize or handle or to lay hold of.
I guess it can be translated a few ways BUT it does seem to imply something that COULD be forceful.
IMO, it meant that if a man got a hold of a virgin that was not engaged to be married and had sex with her and they were found out, he would have to marry her and be under the rule of her father forever.
Quite the penalty in those days.
ryanbouma wrote:Doesn't the rest of the passage describe rape, saying that if she screams it's rape. And if they're out of town where no one can here them, it's assumed she screamed. But if she doesn't scream, it's consenting?